Clat 2015 Sample Paper

ENGLISH
Directions: The following passage is followed by
questions based on its contents. Choose the best
answer and encircle it.
Studies of the factors governing reading devel-
opment in young children have achieved remark-
able degree of consensus over the past two decades.
This consensus concerns the casual role of phono-
logical skills in young children’s reading progress.
Children, who have good phonological skills, or
good ‘phonological awareness’, become good read-
ers and good spellers. Children with poor phono-
logical skills progress more poorly. In particular,
those who have a specific phonological deficit are
likely to be classified as dyslexic by the time that
they are 9 or 10 years old.
Phonological skills in young children can be
measured at a number of different levels. The term
phonological awareness is a global one, and refers
to a deficit in recognizing smaller units of sound
within spoken words. Development work has shown
that this deficit can be at the level of syllables, of
onsets and rimes, or of phonemes. For example, a
4-year old child might have difficulty in recogniz-
ing that a word like valentine has three syllables,
suggesting a lack of syllabic awareness. A 5-year
old might have difficulty in recognizing that the odd
word out in the set of words fan, cat, hat, mat is fan.
This task requires an awareness of the sub-syllabic
units of the onset and the rime. The onset corre-
sponds to any initial consonants in a syllable, and
the rime corresponds to the vowel and to any fol-
lowing consonants. Rimes correspond to rhyme in
single-syllable words, and so the rime in fan differs
from the rime in cat, hat and mat. In longer words,
rime and rhyme may differ. The onsets in val: en:
tine are /v/and/t/, and the rimes correspond to the
spelling patterns ‘al’, ‘en’, and ‘ine’.
A 6-year old might have difficulty in
recognizing that plea and pray begin with the
same initial sound. This is a phonemic judgement.
Although the initial phoneme /P/ is shared between
the two words, in plea it is part of the onset ‘pl’,
and in pray it is part of the onset ‘pr’. Until children
can segment the onset (or the rime), such phonemic
judgements are difficult for them to make. In fact,
a recent survey of different developmental studies
has shown that the different levels of phonological
awareness appear to emerge sequentially. The
awareness of syllables, onsets, and rimes appears
to emerge at around the ages of 3 and 4, long
before most children go to school. The awareness
of phonemes, on the other hand, usually emerges
at around the age of 5 or 6, when children have
been taught to read for about a year. An awareness
of onsets and rimes thus appears to be a precursor
of reading, whereas an awareness of phonemes
at every serial position in a word, only appears
to develop as reading is taught. The onset-rime
and phonemic levels of phonological structure,
however, are not distinct. Many onsets in English
are single phonemes, and so are some rimes (e.g,
sea, go, zoo).
The early availability of onsets and rimes
is supported by studies that have compared
the development of phonological awareness of
onsets, rimes and phonemes in the same subjects
using the same phonological awareness tasks.
For example, a study by Treiman and Zudowski
used a same/different judgment task based on
the beginning or the end sound of words. In the
beginning sound task, the words either began
with the same onset, as in plea and plank, or
shared only the initial phoneme, as in plea and
pray. In the end sound task, the words either
shared the entire rime, as in spit and wit, or
shared only the final phoneme, as in rat and wit.
PRACTICE PAPER 7
Maximum Marks: 200 Marks 181–200: Outstanding
Time: 2 Hours Marks 161–180: Excellent
Marks 141–160: Intelligent
Marks 121–140: Good
Marks 101–120:Average
Marks Less than 100: Poor
Section-B_M07_9789332524804_C07.indd 117Section-B_M07_9789332524804_C07.indd 117 1/2/2014 12:42:35 PM1/2/2014 12:42:35 PM

B.118 Practice Papers
Treiman and Zudowski showed that 4 and 5 year
old children found the onset-rime version of the
same/different task significantly easier than the
version based on phonemes. Only the 6-year old,
who had been learning to read for about a year,
were able to perform both versions of the tasks
with equal levels of success.
1. From the following statements, pick out the
true statement according to the passage.
(a) A mono-syllabic word can have only one
onset.
(b) A mono-syllabic word can have only one
rhyme but more than one rime.
(c) A mono-syllabic word can have only one
phoneme.
(d) All of the above.
2. Which one of the following is likely to
emerge last in the cognitive development of
a child?
(a) Rhyme (b) Rime
(c) Onset (d) Phoneme
3. A phonological deficit in which of the follow-
ing is likely to be classified as dyslexia?
(a) Phonemic judgement
(b) Onset judgement
(c) Rime judgement
(d) Any one or more of the above
4. The Treiman and Zudowski experiment
found evidence to support the following:
(a) At age 6, reading instruction helps chil-
dren perform both, the same-different
judgment task.
(b) The development of onset-rime aware-
ness precedes the development of an
awareness of phonemes.
(c) At age 4-5, children find the onset-rime
version of the same/different task signifi-
cantly easier.
(d) The development of onset-time aware-
ness is a necessary and sufficient condi-
tion for the development of an awareness
of phonemes.
5. The single-syllable words Rhyme and Rime
are constituted by the exact same set of
I. rime(s) II. onset(s)
III. rhyme(s) IV. phoneme(s)
(a) I, II (b) I, III
(c) I, II, III (d) II, III, IV
SYNONYMS
Directions: Every word is followed by four options.
You have to find out the word which is meant in
meaning to the given word.
6. Sagacity
(a) Morality (b) Knowledge
(c) Wisdom (d) Sanctity
7. Salacious
(a) briny (b) Purchasable
(c) obscene (d) Flavored
8. Knack
(a) Own (b) Skill
(c) Job (d) Quality
9. Extravaganza
(a) Profligacy
(b) Spectacular show
(c) Over reaching
(d) Falsification
10. Bemused
(a) Enchanted (b) Entertained
(c) Lost in thought (d) Ridiculous
ANTONYMS
Directions: Every word is followed by four options.
You have to find out the word exactly opposite in
meaning to the given word.
11. Acquittal
(a) Warrant (b) Condemnation
(c) Punishment (d) Castigation
12. Dormant
(a) Active (b) Modern
(c) Permanent (d) Transient
13. Kindle
(a) Ignite (b) Encourage
(c) Ignore (d) Merciless
14. Transparent
(a) Coloured (b) Childlike
(c) Opaque (d) Imminent
15. Wicked
(a) Sober (b) Helpful
(c) Conscientious (d) Faithful
IDIOMS
Directions: Given idiom/phrase word is followed by
four options. You have to find out the exact option
from the given options.

Practice Papers B.119
16. He is temporarily in charge of the company
and is trying to feather his nest.
(a) Act for his own future benefits.
(b) Raise the image of the company.
(c) Practice his own brand of management
philosophy.
(d) Bring order and discipline in the company.
17. It has been raining cats and dogs.
(a) Endlessly (b) Incessantly
(c) Continuously (d) Heavily
18. It requires unparalleled courage to set the
thames on fire.
(a) Do something extraordinary or brilliant
(b) Do a heroic deed
(c) Wreak evil on something
(d) Destroy with fire
19. Some people now wonder whether we just
pay lip service or genuinely subscribe to
democracy
(a) Remain indifferent
(b) Pay oral tribute
(c) Show only outward respect
(d) Attach no value
20. Seema is a little hard of hearing
(a) Deaf (b) Inaudible
(c) Insensitive (d) Disinterested
ONE WORD SUBSTITUTION
Directions: Every sentence is followed by four
options. You have to find out the one word substitu-
tion for given sentences.
21. Something that becomes outdated
(a) Old (b) Ancient
(c) Obsolete (d) Useless
22. To send an unwanted person out of the
country
(a) Deport (b) Exclude
(c) Expatriate (d) Ostracise
23. The act of violating the sanctity of church
(a) Blasphemy (b) Heresy
(c) Sacrilege (d) Desecration
24. Virus is a biological entity which lives on
another organism.
(a) Symbiotic (b) Dependant
(c) Plebiscite (d) Parasite
25. A man of odd habits
(a) Cynical (b) Eccentric
(c) Moody (d) Introvert
ARTICLES
Directions: Fill in the blanks with suitable articles.
26. _______ old horse stumbles and nods.
(a) an (b) a
(c) the (d) none of these
27. Here I am _______ old man being read to by
_______ boy.
(a) an, the (b) the, an
(c) an, a (d) a, an
28. If _______ rich grow richer and _______
poor poorer, the country will go to _______
dogs.
(a) the, the, the (b) a, an, the
(c) the, a, an (d) the, an, a
29. _______ ship has come to _______ port
_______ port has been recently repaired.
(a) a, an, the, the
(b) the, the, a, a
(c) a, an, the, the
(d) a, the, the
30. _______ water of _______ Caspian Sea is
blackish.
(a) the, a (b) a, the
(c) a, a (d) the, the
PREPOSITIONS
Directions: Fill in the blanks with appropriate
prepositions from the options given against each
sentence.
31. He slept soundly _______ three hours
running.
(a) in (b) for
(c) to (d) at
32. I am going to put the tin _______ the oven.
(a) in (b) at
(c) to (d) by
33. They are moving _______ side to side.
(a) with (b) from
(c) by (d) on
34. I have been looking _______ you.
(a) by (b) in
(c) to (d) for
35. Our newspaper aims _______ having million
readers by next year.
(a) with (b) in
(c) at (d) for

SPELLING OF WORDS
Directions: Given below are the words. Every MCQ
has four variants in terms of its spelling.You have to
find the word with correct spellings.
36. (a) Simultaneus (b) Simultaneous
(c) Simultaneos (d) Simulteneous
37. (a) Erroneos (b) Erroneus
(c) Erroneous (d) Erronious
38. (a) Constetution (b) Constitution
(c) Constitusion (d) Constitucion
39. (a) Frustrasion (b) Frustration
(c) Frustracion (d) Frusteration
40. (a) Threadbare (b) Threadbere
(c) Thraedbare (d) Threadebare
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
41. Which one of the following events, detected
in the last decade, is associated with occa-
sional weak monsoon rains in the Indian
subcontinent?
(a) Greenhoue effect
(b) La Nina
(c) El Nino
(d) Movement of Jet Streams
42. The World Development Report is an annual
publication of
(a) the United Nations Development
Programme.
(b) the World Bank.
(c) the World Trade Organization.
(d) International Monetary Fund.
43. The members of the Constituent Assembly
which drafted Indian Constitution were
(a) nominated by British Parliament.
(b) elected by the Legislative Assemblies
under the Government of India Act,
1935.
(c) elected by the Legislative Assemblies
under Monteque Chelmsford Reforms,
1919.
(d) nominated by the Governor-General of
India.
44. FiveYear Plans in India are finally approved by
(a) Parliament.
(b) The President.
(c) Planning Commission.
(d) National Development Council.
45. Which one among the following stock exchanges
recorded highest turnover during 2000–01?
(a) Bombay Stock Exchange
(b) National Stock Exchange
(c) Bangalore Stock Exchange
(d) Calculation Stock Exchange
46. Busan, a town in South Korea, was very much
in news because
(a) North and South Korean talks for the unifi-
cation of Korea took place there.
(b) it has become the new capital of South
Korea.
(c) Fourteenth Asian Games took place there.
(d) there was a plane crash in that place kill-
ing important personalities.
47. Which of the following issues, pertaining to
Gujarat was referred to the Supreme Court by
the President for advisory opinion?
(a) Validity of the visit of Election Commission
to Gujarat.
(b) The critical reference regarding the com-
munal situation by the Chief Election
Commissioner.
(c) Holding of Assembly elections within the
stipulated time period.
(d) Conduct of Modi Government during the
communal conflict.
48. The World Conference on sustainable
Development was organized at
(a) New York. (b) Johannesburg.
(c) Sao Paulo. (d) Sun City.
49. The Rolling Plan concept was introduced in
India when _______ was prime Minister
(a) Morarji Desai (b) Chandra Shekher
(c) Charan Singh (d) V.P. Singh
50. Internationally well known ‘Human
Development Report’ deals with
(a) status of human rights in various states.
(b) status of human development in various
countries.
(c) the role of state in ensuring human rights.
(d) human welfare generally.
51. A Brief History of Time was authored by
(a) Cari Sagan. (b) Stephen Hawkins.
(c) John Schwarg. (d) Michael Green.
52. The author of the book Globalization and its
Discontents is
(a) Amartya Sen. (b) Joseph Stiglitz.
(c) Anne Krueger. (d) Paul Harris.

53. The Constitutional Amendment which made
right to education a fundamental right is
(a) 86th (b) 93rd
(c) 90th (d) 95th
54. The first Indian state which used electronic
voting machine for the entire Assembly elec-
tion is
(a) Sikkim. (b) Manipur.
(c) Goa. (d) Kerala.
55. India’s first ever woman foreign secretary was
(a) Muthamma.
(b) Renuka Chowdhury.
(c) Chokila Iyer.
(d) Ramadev.
56. The first country to make euthanasia legal is
(a) Sweden. (b) The Netherlands.
(c) Finland. (d) Missouri.
57. Which of the following is considered as the
second largest economic activity after agri-
culture India?
(a) Handlooms (b) Carpentry
(c) Poultry (d) Fishing
58. To which country does Osama bin Laden
originally belong?
(a) Iraq (b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Iran (d) Afghanistan
59. What is meant by genocide?
(a) Killing of a large number of people.
(b) Murdering one’s own kith and kin.
(c) Mass suicide.
(d) Exterminating a race.
60. Who is the author of the Harry Potter?
(a) J.K. Rowling
(b) Vikram Seth
(c) Salman Rushdie
(d) Erid Blyton
61. Who is the first woman to receive Bharat
Ratna award?
(a) M.S. Subbalakshmi
(b) Lata Mangeshkar
(c) Mother Teresa
(d) Indira Gandhi
62. At what intervals is National Census
undertaken?
(a) 5 years (b) 10 years
(c) 7 years (d) 8 years
63. The river Ganga is known in Bangladesh as
(a) Bangla. (b) Padma.
(c) Chambal. (d) Sonar.
64. The recent UN Conference against Racism
was held at
(a) Geneva. (b) Durban.
(c) Rome. (d) Caracas.
65. The economist, who was awarded Padma
Vibhushana by the Government of India was
(a) Amartya Sen.
(b) Montek Singh Ahluwalia.
(c) J.K. Galbaraith.
(d) Robert Merton.
66. Schedule Nine of Indian Constitution deals
with
(a) national languages.
(b) land reform legislators.
(c) the legislations protected from attacks
under the Constitution.
(d) tribunals.
67. The tax revenue as a percentage of the Gross
Tax Revenue is highest from
(a) Income Tax (b) Customs Duty
(c) Corporate Tax (d) Excise Duty
68. The jurist who headed the National
Commission on working of the Constitution is
(a) Soli Sorabjee.
(b) Justice Verma.
(c) Justice A.R. Ahmedi.
(d) Justice Venkatachaliah.
69. The well known ‘Doha Declaration’ was
issued at the end of
(a) World Bank Annual Conference.
(b) a special meeting convened by the World
Bank.
(c) the bi-annual meeting of the W.T.O.
(d) the regular meeting of the W.T.O.
70. Devaluation of currency is expected to lead to
(a) floating exchange rate system.
(b) rise in exports.
(c) rise in imports.
(d) dirty float.
71. Which of the following rights is a Constitutional
right, but not fundamental right?
(a) Right to freedom of expression.
(b) Right to freedom of religion.
(c) Right to property.
(d) Right to move freely.
72. Which is the Strait separating India from Sri
Lanka?
(a) Malacca (b) Palk
(c) Mandel (d) Magellan

73. Baul singers are associated with
(a) Karnataka. (b) U.P.
(c) West Bengal. (d) Kashmir.
74. Who was the Indian woman, named as
‘Woman of the Millennium’ in a BBC poll?
(a) Mother Teresa (b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Rukmini Devi (d) Arundhati Roy
75. The ﬁrst person to be awarded Bharat Ratna
posthumously
(a) M.G. Ramachandra
(b) K. Kamraj
(c) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(d) B.R. Ambedkar
76. Tansen sang in the Court of
(a) Ashoka.
(b) Chandra Gupta Maurya.
(c) Akbar.
(d) Jahangir.
77. The great lawyer who has initiated most of
the environmental litigation in India
(a) H.M. Seervai (b) M.C. Mehta
(c) Soli Sorabjee (d) Fali Nariman
78. The case which heralded the privatization of
education in India
(a) Unnikrishann v. Union of India
(b) T.M.A. Pai foundation v. State of
Karnataka
(c) Indira Sawhney v. Union of India
(d) Keshavanda Bharathi v. Union of India
79. The country which became 191st member of
the UNO.
(a) Eritrea (b) Nauru
(c) East Timor (d) Solomon island
80. The author of the great poetic work
‘Madhushala’
(a) Mahadevi Verma
(b) Mythili Sharana Gupta
(c) Harivansha Rai Bachchan
(d) Gulzar
81. If cheetah (leopard) is the fastest animal on
four legs, which is the fastest creature on two
legs?
(a) Penguin (b) Ostrich
(c) Humming Bird (d) Kangaroo
82. Which element, after oxygen is most abun-
dant on earth’s crust?
(a) Nickel (b) Aluminium
(c) Iron (d) Silicon
83. Which is the largest constellation in the
galaxy?
(a) Hydra (b) Andromeda
(c) Akash Ganga (d) Great Bear
84. Which of the following is not correctly
matched?
(a) First Plan 1951–1956
(b) Seventh Plan 1985–1990
(c) Eighth Plan 1992–1997
(d) Ninth Plan 1998–2003
85. The main pollutants emitted from the exhaust
of a petrol engine are
(i) carbon monoxide.
(ii) nitrogen monoxide.
(iii) unburnt hydrocarbon codes.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) (i) only (d) (i) and (ii) only
86. A blue chip company denotes
(a) producing computer hardware.
(b) manufacturing designer jewellery.
(c) with high returns, high capital apprecia-
tion and low risk.
(d) which produces goods primarily for
exports.
87. Uranium-238 is
(a) enriched uranium (b) natural uranium
(c) atom bomb (d) useless uranium
88. Noble prizes are awarded for greatest contri-
bution in the ﬁelds of
(a) Physics, Chemistry, Medicine, Literature,
World peace and Economics.
(b) Physics, Chemistry, Literature, World
peace and preserving environment.
(c) Physics, Maths, Chemistry, Literature
and World Peace.
(d) Physics,Astronomy, Medicine, Literature
and World peace.
89. What is biopsy?
(a) Painless method of diagnosing disease.
(b) Separation of dissolved substance using
semi-permeable membrane.
(c) Method to correct the inherited disorder.
(d) Procedure of obtaining tissues from
affected parts.
90. Who is called as Frontier Gandhi?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Abdul Gaffar Khan

LEGAL AWARENESS/LEGAL
REASONING
91. Principle: Contractual liability is completely
irrelevant to the existence of liability in tort
(civil wrong).
Facts: X purchased a bottle of ginger beer
from a retailer. As she consumed more than
3/4 of the contents of the bottle, she found a
decomposed remains of a snail in the bottle.
After seeing the remains of a snail, she fell
sick on the thought of what she consumed.
She sued the manufacturer of the beer for
negligence, though there is no contractual
duty on the part of the manufacturer.
(a) X cannot sue the manufacturer
for negligence in the absence of a
contract.
(b) X cannot sue the retailer.
(c) X can sue the manufacturer as he had
duty to take care to see that bottles did not
contain any other substance than the beer
and hence liable to have broken that duty.
(d) None of the above.
92. Principle: A master will be liable for the
negligent acts of his servant in the course of
employment.
Situation: Samuel was a driver employed
by Kohinoor Company to drive their luxury
buses during the night. Mohammed has
been assistant over a period of time. One
night, when he was driving he felt terribly
sleepy and he handed over the steering wheel
to Mohammed and dozed off. The bus hit
against a car coming from the opposite side
due to the inexperience of Mohammed. The
owner of the car filed a suit against Kohinoor.
(a) Kohinoor will be liable, because it was
improper on the part of Samuel to ask
Mohammed to drive.
(b) Kohinoor will not be liable to pay,
because Samuel was not supposed to ask
Mohammed to drive.
(c) Kohinoor will be liable, because
Mohammed was also an employee of
Kohinoor.
(d) Kohinoor will not be liable because
Mohammed was not acting in the course
of his employment.
93. Principle: The standard to determine whether
a person has been guilty of negligence is
the standard of care which, in the given cir-
cumstances, a reasonable man could have
foreseen.
Facts: An agricultural university constructed
200 houses for its employees in its premises.
Two huge bore wells were sunk and motors
were installed. They did not cover the pump
rooms properly. A child, six years old, from
one of the quarters was playing near the
pumphouse. On hearing the noise of the
pump, she was curious to see the motor.
She touched the motor that was not covered
properly and three of her fingers were cut.
(a) The parents of the child cannot sue the
university on any grounds.
(b) In spite of the child’s act, her parents
can successfully sue the university for
damages.
(c) The university can be made liable only to
the extent of the cost of treatment as the
child also contributed to the incident.
94. Principles:
1. A master is liable for the act of his
servants/employees.
2. The husband or wife is not responsible
for any compensation of wrong on each
other.
Situation: H is a manager of a hotel belong-
ing to X. Because of the negligence of H, a
folding chair fell from the first floor to the
ground floor injuring the receptionist of the
hotel, named W who is the wife of H. W asks
for compensation from X and H.
(a) Both X and H are responsible to compen-
sate W.
(b) X is only responsible to compensate W.
(c) H is only responsible to compensate W.
(d) No one is responsible to compensate W.
95. Principle: A person is liable for all the injuri-
ous consequences of his careless act.
Facts: Ram, a snake charmer, was exhibiting
his talents to a group of people. One of the
snakes escaped and bit a child who had to be
hospitalized for two days for treatment.
(a) Ram is liable to compensate the child’s
family for his careless act.

(b) Ram is not liable to anything as such
things keep happening.
(c) Ram is not in a position to compensate as
he is poor.
96. Principle: A person is entitled to protect his
property by using lawful means.
Facts: Ramlal is growing valuable vegetables
and fruits in his farm and he has fenced the
farm to prevent the cattle from entering into it.
In addition he has kept a ferocious dog to chase
away intruding urchins and cattles. Some chil-
dren were playing in a nearby playground and
the ball slipped into the farm. A boy running
after the ball came near the fence and shouted
for the ball. When there was no response, he
managed to creep into the farm to get the ball.
The dog which was surreptitiously waiting
attacked the boy and badly mauled him. The
boy’s parents filed a suit against Ramlal.
(a) Ramlal is not liable, since the fence and
the dog are lawful means of protecting
the property.
(b) Ramlal is not liable for the boy trespassing
and getting badly injured in that process.
(c) Ramlal is liable, since an ordinary barking
dog would have sufficed for the purpose.
97. Legal Principle: Whoever uses force without
any lawful justification is deemed to commit
battery.
Factual Situation: Mary and Maya have an
argument over an issue in the classroom. In
order to take revenge over this, Mary tries to
humiliate Maya in front of the other class-
mates by pulling the chair the moment she is
about to sit on the chair. Though Maya falls,
she is not hurt. However, she files a case
against Mary for battery.
Question: Is Mary liable?
(a) Mary is not liable because Maya was not
hurt.
(b) Mary is not liable because their argument
justified her action.
(c) Mary is not liable because it did not
require any force to pull the chair out
before Maya sat.
(d) Mary is liable because her action is not
justified.
98. Legal Principle: ‘Qui facit per alium facit per
se’, which means, ‘he who does an act through
another is deemed in law to do it himself’.
Factual Situation: A gave some amount and
cheques to his friend B, who was an employee
of the State Bank of India, to deposit the same
in the account of his wife C. The employee
misappropriated the amount. C files a suit
against the State Bank of India. Choose the
correct option.
(a) The State Bank of India would be vicari-
ously liable to C.
(b) The State Bank of India would be vicari-
ously liable to B.
(c) B would be liable to A.
(d) Neither State Bank of India nor B would
be liable.
99. Legal Principle: A violation of a legal right,
with or without damage, gives rise to a tort.
Factual Situation: ‘A’ establishes a coaching
class and charges `5,000 per year as fees.
‘A’s neighbour ‘B’establishes another coach-
ing class thereby creating a competition; this
forces ‘A’ to reduce his fees to `3,000 per
year.
Question: Can ‘A’ claim damages from ‘B’
for the loss caused to him?
(a) Yes, he can as ‘B’ has violated his legal
right.
(b) No, ‘A’ has reduced the fees on his own.
(c) No, because though there was damage
there was no legal injury.
100. Principle: A master shall be liable for the
fraudulent acts committed by his servants in
the course of employment.
Situation: Shaila Devi opened a SB account
with Oriental Bank, and a cousin of her by
name Mohan, who was a clerk in that bank,
helped her to complete the formalities.
Subsequently, she used to entrust whatever
money she was getting to Mohan along with
her passbook and Mohan used to return the
passbook with relevant entries. One day, Shaila
Devi discovered that Mohan, instead of credit-
ing the money to her account, had misappro-
priating it and the entries in the passbook were
without the authorization from the bank. Shaila
Devi seeks compensation from Oriental Bank.

Answer:
(a) Oriental bank shall be liable because
Mohan was acting in the course of his
employment.
(b) Oriental bank shall not be liable, because
Mohan was not acting in the course of
employment.
(c) Oriental bank was not liable, because
Shaila Devi was negligent.
Legal Principles
(For questions 101 to 105)
Rules:
A. A minor is a person who is below the
age of 18. However, where a guardian
administers the minor’s property the age
of majority is 21.
B. A minor is not permitted by law to enter
into a contract. Hence, where a minor
enters into a contract with a major per-
son, the contract is not enforceable. This
effectively means that neither the minor
nor the other party can make any claim
on the basis of the contract.
C. In a contract with a minor, if the other
party hands over any money or confers
any other benefit on the minor, the same
shall not be recoverable from the minor
unless the other party was deceived by
the minor to hand over money or any
other benefit. The other party will have to
show that the minor misrepresented her
age, he was ignorant about the age of the
minor and that he handed over the benefit
on the basis of such representation.
Facts: Ajay convinces Bandita, a girl aged 18
that she should sell her land to him. Bandita’s
mother Chaaru is her guardian. Nonetheless,
Bandita, without the permission of Chaaru,
sells the land to Ajay for a total sum of rupees
50 lakh, paid in full and final settlement of
the price. Chaaru challenges this transaction
claiming that Bandita is a minor and hence
the possession of the land shall not be given
to Ajay. Thus, Ajay is in a difficult situation
and has no idea how to recover his money
from Bandita.
101. Chaaru is justified in challenging the sale
transaction because
(a) Bandita is of unsound mind and is not in
a position to make rational decisions.
(b) though Bandita is an 18-years old, she
will be treated as a minor, as Chaaru is
her guardian.
(c) though Bandita is an 18-year old, she
cannot sell the land without the permis-
sion of her mother.
(d) though Bandita is an 18-year old she
should not be treated like a person who has
attained the age of majority.
102. Ajay can be allowed to recover the money
only if he can show that
(a) he was deceived by Bandita who misrep-
resented her age.
(b) he honestly believed that Bandita was
empowered under the law to sell the
land.
(c) he was an honest person who had paid the
full price, of the land to Bandita.
(d) both (a) and (b).
103. In order to defend the sale, Bandita will need
to show that
(a) Bandita has attained the age of majority.
(b) Bandita is mature enough to make ratio-
nal decisions regarding her own affairs.
(c) the sale transaction was beneficial to her
interest and will enhance her financial
status.
(d) none of the above.
104. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Ajay should be allowed to recover the
money because even though there is no
contract, Bandita and Chaaru should not
be allowed to unjustly benefit from Ajay’s
money.
(b) Ajay should be allowed the possession
of the land because Chaaru can always
decide to approve the transaction between
Ajay and Bandita.
(c) Ajay should not be allowed to recover
because he induced Bandita, a minor, to
sell the land.
105. Which of the following is correct?
(a) If Ajay is allowed to recover the money,
that will defeat the law framed for pro-
tecting the minors against fraudulent
persons.

(b) If Ajay is not allowed to recover that will
cause him injustice as he has not paid the
entire sale price.
(c) If Ajay is not allowed to recover, Chaaru
will beneﬁt from both the money and the
land.
106. Legal Principle: Where both parties to an
agreement are under a mistake as to matter of
fact essential to the agreement, the agreement
is void.
Factual Situation: A agrees to buy certain
horse from B for `10,000 and pays `5,000
as an advance. It turns out that the horse was
dead at the time of bargain, though neither
party knew this fact.
Issue: Can A recover the advance money
given?
Decision:
(a) No,A cannot get the money back because
money advanced is not returnable.
(b) A cannot get the money back because the
rule of caveat emptor applies on him.
(c) Yes, A can get the money paid in advance
because in this case there is bilateral mis-
take as to the subject matter.
107. Legal Principle: Display of the article is only
invitation to offer and not an offer.
Factual Situation: An article is on display in
a showroom with price tag of, `100’. Mr A
offers `100 to the shopkeeper for the article,
but the shopkeeper refuses to sell it.
Issue: Can Mr A sue B for not selling the
article?
Decision:
(a) A can sue B because display of article
is an offer and B has accepted it for the
price tagged on it.
(b) Mr A cannot force the shopkeeper to sell
the article, because display of the article
is only invitation to offer and not an offer.
(c) Neither (a) nor (b).
108. Principle: When the parties to an agree-
ment agree on the same thing in the same
sense, there arises legally binding obligations
between them.
Facts: Zaverilal’s antique shop was a well-
known shop of the locality. Taradevi, a
socialite of the locality, went to the shop
and she was attracted by an earthern jar on
display. Zaverilal explained to her that the jar
belonged to the Hoysala period; and despite
its earthern composition, it was very strong
and almost unbreakable. Taradevi replied to
him that she was so captivated by the jar that
it was immaterial to her as to which period it
belonged. She bought the jar and came home.
She placed the jar in a prominent place in her
drawing room. One of her friends, an art cri-
tique, who happened to visit her, told her that
the jar was not at all an antique, but Taradevi
did not bother about it. One day, it acciden-
tally fell down and broke into pieces. Taradevi
took up the matter with Zaverilal that his both
statements were wrong and, therefore, he
should pay damages to her.
(a) Zaverilal must compensate her, since his
both the statements concerning jar were
wrong.
(b) Zaverilal need not compensate, since,
Taradevi was not concerned with its
antique value at all.
(c) Zaverilal must compensate, because he
carelessly made the statements.
109. Legal Principle: Where both parties to an
agreement are under a mistake as to matter of
fact essential to the agreement, the agreement
is void.
Factual Situation: A, contracts with B to buy
a necklace, believing it to be made of very
costly rare pearls, while in reality, the pearls
are only an imitation having very little value.
B knows that A is mistaken but does not
disclose the facts.
Issue: Is A bound by the contract?
Decision:
(a) No, A is not bound by the contract
because it is not a unilateral mistake.
(b) Yes, because the rule of caveat emptor
will apply.
(c) No, A is not bound by the contract
because the rule of caveat venditor
applies on B.
110. Principle: Law does not take notice of triﬂes.
Facts: A proposes to his neighbour B that they
both should go together for a morning walk.
B agrees to the proposal and it was decided

that both of them would meet at a particular
point at 6 a.m. from where they would set off
for the morning walk. In spite of the agree-
ment, B did not turn up. A waits for him at
6 a.m. every day for a continuous period of
seven days. Thereafter, he ﬁles a suit against
B claiming damages for the agony and mental
torture suffered by him.
Decide:
(a) B is guilty of breach of contract and is
liable to pay damages.
(b) There is no intention to enter into legal
relations.
(c) The matter is too small and the court will
refuse to go into it.
111. Legal Principle: Willful rash driving is an
offense.
Facts: Mr Tiwari was driving his car after
drinking alcohol. Police books him for will-
ful negligent driving. Is the act of the police
lawful?
(a) No, because Mr Tiwari was not driving
rashly; he was drunk while driving.
(b) No, this is not a negligent act.
(c) Yes, because Mr Tiwari was driving
rashly.
(d) Yes, because the police has the power to
arrest a person driving rashly.
112. X, the servant of Y, takes a hundred rupee
note from Y’s pocket and hides it under the
carpet in the house ofY. X tells Z another ser-
vant of Y, about the currency note and both
agree to share the money when the currency
note is taken by X from the hiding place.
Before X could recover the note, it was found
byY. Decide if an offence was committed and
if so who committed the offence?
(a) No offence was committed.
(b) Only X committed the offence.
(c) Both X and Z committed the offence.
(d) Only Z committed the offence
113. Legal Principle:Nothing is an offence which is
done by a person who, at the time of doing it by
reason of unsound state of mind, is incapable of
knowing the nature of the act or something that
he is doing is either wrong or contrary to law.
Fact: X takes his son Y who is three years
old, for bathing to the well. He throws his son
inside the well so that the son can have a good
bath. After 10 minutes, he also jumps into the
well to take bath and get his son out of the
well. Both were rescued by the villagers but
his son was found dead.
(a) X has committed culpable homicide
amounting to murder.
(b) X has committed murder.
(c) X has done no offence as he can plead the
defense of unsound state of mind.
(d) X’s family should be held responsible for
allowing him to take the child to the well.
114. Read the following situation and choose the
correct option from the given below.
Situation: Mr A has stolen Mr B’s bicycle,
which he had parked at the college common
parking. Mr B wants to sue Mr A, what would
be the liability of Mr A?
(a) A is liable to B for the tort of conversion,
only.
(b) A is guilty of offence of theft, only.
(c) A could be tried for both, the tort of con-
version and offence of theft, concurrently.
(d) A could be tried for both (civil and crimi-
nal), alternatively
Legal Principle
(For questions 115–119)
Rules:
A. Whoever intending to take any movable
property out of the possession of any per-
son without that person’s consent, moves
that property out of his or her possession,
is said to commit theft.
B. A person who, without lawful excuse,
damages any property belonging to
another intending to damage any such
property shall be guilty of causing crimi-
nal damage.
C. Damage means any impairment of the
value of a property.
Facts: Veena, an old lady of 78 years, used
to live with her grand-daughter Indira. Veena
was ill and bed-ridden for several months. In
those months, she could not tolerate any noise
and it became quite difficult to clean her room.
After she died, Indira hired a cleaner, Lucky,
to clean the room and throwaway any rub-
bish that may be there. There was a pile of

old newspapers which Veena had stacked in a
corner of her room. Lucky asked Indira if he
should clear away the pile of old newspapers,
to which she said yes. Lucky took the pile to
a municipality rubbish dump. While Lucky
was sorting and throwing away the newspa-
pers, he was very surprised to find a beautiful
painting in between two sheets of paper. He
thought that Indira probably would not want
this old painting back, especially because it
was torn in several places and the colour was
fading. He took the painting home, mounted
it on a wooden frame and hung it on the wall
of his bedroom. Unknown to him, the painting
was an old masterpiece, and worth `20,000.
Before mounting the painting, Lucky pasted it
on a plain sheet of paper so that it does not
tear any more. By doing so, he made its pro-
fessional restoration very difficult and thereby
reduced its value by half. Lucky’s neighbour
Kamala discovered that the painting belonged
to Indira. With the motive of returning the
painting to Indira, Kamala climbed through an
open window into Lucky’s room when he was
away one afternoon and removed the painting
from his house.
115. Has Lucky committed theft?
(a) Yes, Lucky has committed theft of the
newspapers and the painting.
(b) No, Lucky has not committed theft
because he had Veena’s consent.
(c) Yes, Lucky has committed theft of the
painting, but not of the newspapers.
(d) No, Lucky has not committed theft
because he has not moved the painting
out of Veena’s possession.
116. Is Lucky guilty of criminal damage?
(a) No, Lucky is not guilty of criminal dam-
age as he did not intentionally impair the
value of the painting.
(b) Yes, Lucky is guilty of criminal damage
as he intentionally stuck the paper on to
the painting.
(c) No, Lucky is not guilty of criminal dam-
age as he does not have the painting in his
possession anymore.
(d) No, Lucky is not guilty of the crimi-
nal damage as he has not destroyed the
painting.
117. If Lucky had discovered the painting before
leaving Indira’s house rather than at the rub-
bish dump, would he have been guilty of theft
in this case?
(a) Yes, he would be guilty of theft of the
newspapers and the paintings.
(b) No, he would not be guilty of theft.
(c) Yes, he would be guilty of theft of the
painting.
118. Is Kamala guilty of theft?
(a) No, Kamala is not guilty of theft since
the person she took the painting from
(Lucky) was not its lawful owner.
(b) No, Kamala is not guilty of theft since she
took the painting only with the motive of
returning it to Indira.
(c) Yes, Kamala is guilty of theft as she took
the painting out of Lucky’s possession
without his consent.
119. Which of the following propositions could be
inferred from the facts and the rules specified?
(a) Kamala is guilty of criminal damage as
the person she took the painting from
(Lucky) was not its lawful owner.
(b) Kamala is guilty of criminal damage as she
took the painting without Lucky’s consent.
(c) Kamala is not guilty of criminal damage
as the painting has not been completely
destroyed.
120. Principle: Anticipatory bail could be granted
to any person who apprehends arrest for a
non-bailable offence.
Facts: Z publishes a defamatory statement
against a state minister in a local daily. Police
registers a case of defamation, a bailable
offence against Z. He files an application in the
Supreme Court seeking an anticipatory bail.
(a) His application shall be rejected by the
Supreme Court for want of jurisdiction.
(b) His application shall be rejected due to
limited circulation of the newspaper.
(c) His application shall be entertained by
the court as it involves denial of personal
liberty of Z.
(d) His application shall be returned as not
maintainable.

121. On which date did India become a sovereign
democratic republic?
(a) 15 August 1947
(b) 26 January 1950
(c) 30 January 1952
(d) 26 January 1947
122. A minister should become the member of
either house of Parliament within
(a) 6 months. (b) 2 months.
(c) 4 months. (d) 12 months.
123. Which one of the following statements
regarding the Preamble is correct?
(a) It is not enforceable in a court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court has recently ruled
that it is not a part of Constitution.
(c) It has been amended twice.
(d) All of the above
124. In a particular case, advice tendered by coun-
cil of ministers is sent back by the president
for reconsideration. If the council of ministers
adhere to their earlier advice, the president
(a) can ask for reconsideration of the advice
once more.
(b) can ask for reconsideration of the advice
any number of times.
(c) has no option but to accept such advice.
(d) must seek the advice of the Supreme
Court before rejecting the advice.
125. When the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha act as
a President, the duties of Chairman are per-
formed by
(a) any member of the Rajya Sabha.
(b) himself.
(c) a newly elected Chairman.
(d) the Deputy Chairman
126. The President of India can be removed from
his office by the
(a) Prime Minister.
(b) Lok Sabha.
(c) Chief Justice of India.
(d) Parliament.
127. ‘India is a secular state’ it means the Indian
state
(a) favours irreligious citizens.
(b) favours the religions of the majority
community.
(c) favours the religions of the minority
community.
(d) favours no particular religion.
128. The Chief Justice and other judges of high
court are appointed by
(a) the President.
(b) the President in consultation with the
Chief Justice of India.
(c) the President in consultation with the
Governor of the state concerned.
(d) the President in consultation with the
Chief Justice of India and the Governor
of the state concerned
129. Match schedule one and two and choose the
appropriate answer:
Schedule I Schedule II
A. Concurrent list 1. Constitution of
Japan
B. Rule of Law 2. Constitution of
Ireland
C. Directive Principle 3. British of
State Policy
Constitution
D. Procedure 4. Constitution
of established
Australia by law
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
130. The council of ministers is collectively
responsible to
(a) the Parliament. (b) the Lok Sabha.
(c) the Rajya Sabha. (d) the Prime Minister
131. The concept of judicial review has been
borrowed from the Constitution of
(a) USSR.
(b) the United Kingdom.
(c) the United States.
(d) Switzerland
132. Legal Principle: All minorities, whether
based on religion or language shall have the
rights to establish and administer educational
institution of their choice.
Factual Situation: Md.Yusuf wants to establish
an educational institution to help the poor people
of his community and to educate the children of
the community.Yusuf being a very rich man has
no problem regarding ﬁnance for the institution.
Therefore, he applies to the state government to

grant him permission to establish and adminis-
ter the institution. The state government rejects
his plea on ground that the said institution will
create communal tension in the proposed area.
Yusuf has the following remedies:
(a) He should file a civil suit in the District
Court.
(b) He should file a special leave petition
before the Supreme Court.
(c) He has no remedy under the law.
(d) He could file a writ petition either before
the High Court or the Supreme Court.
133. How many fundamental duties are there?
(a) 9 (b) 10
(c) 11 (d) 12
134. The Constitution of independent India came
into force on
(a) 26 January 1950. (b) 26 August 1947.
(c) 26 August 1949. (d) 26 January 1949.
135. The Constitution has vested the executive
power of the Union government in
(a) the President.
(b) the Prime Minister.
(c) the Council of Ministers.
(d) all of the above three
136. An official working in an organization or a
government department, especially one who
follows the rules of the department too strictly
is called a
(a) bureaucrate. (b) bureaucrat.
(c) buraeucrate. (d) buraeucrat.
137. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Set-off 1. Amount paid by the
decree-holder for
detention of the judg-
ment-debtor in civil
prison.
B. Mesne profit 2. Person allowed to file
suit or appeal without
court fee.
C. Indigent 3. Adjustment of defen-
dant’s claim with the
plaintiffs claim.
D. Subsistence 4. Gains from property
allowance by a per-
son having wrongful
possession.
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 1 2 4
138. Who among the following was the first Chief
Information Commissioner of India?
(a) Wajahat Habibullah
(b) Irfan Habib
(c) Tahir Mahmood
(d) Najma Heptullah
139. Crime is a
(a) public wrong.
(b) private wrong.
(c) public as well as private wrong.
(d) neither public nor private wrong.
140. Which of the following Constitutions when
framed did not provide for judicial review?
(a) Indian (b) Pakistani
(c) The United States (d) Australian
MATHEMATICAL ABILITY
141. If the simple interest on a sum of money for
2 years at 8% per annum is `120, what will
be the CI on the same sum at the same rate for
the same time?
(a) `124.80 (b) `110.20
(c) `145.15 (d) `136.25
142. A sum is invested at compound interest pay-
able annually. The interest in two successive
year was `600 and `660. The sum is
(a) `7,800. (b) `7,200.
(c) `6,800. (d) `6,000.
143. The sum on which the compound interest for
second year at 10% per annum is `154, is
given by
(a) `1,360. (b) `1,250.
(c) `1,400. (d) `1,520.
144. A sum of `3,90,200 is to be paid back in
three equal annual instalments. How much is
each instalment, if the rate of interest charged
is 4% per annum compounded annually?
(a) `1,40,608 (b) `1,20,560
(c) `10,000 (d) `18,000
145. A sum of `2,400 deposited at CI, doubled
after 5 years. After 20 years it will become
(a) `24,000.
(b) `38,400.

(c) `19,200.
(d) Cannot be determined
146. The ratio of number of males to number of
females in a club is 7 : 4. If there are 84 males
in the club, then the total number of members
in the club are
(a) 126. (b) 132.
(c) 136. (d) 148.
147. Find the duplicate ratio of 3 : 5x y .
(a) 3x2
: 5y2
(b) 3x : 5y
(c) 3 : 5x y (d) 3 :5x y
148. If 20% of x = 35% of y, then x : y is
(a) 4 : 5. (b) 3 : 4.
(c) 7 : 3. (d) 7 : 4.
149. If all the members of a team are juniors or
seniors and if the ratio of juniors to seniors
on the team is 3 : 5, what per cent of the team
members are seniors?
(a) 37.5% (b) 62.5%
(c) 65.2% (d) 35.7%
150. What number should be subtracted from each
of the numbers 75, 85, 89 and 101, so that the
remainders may be proportional?
(a) 5 (b) 2
(c) 6 (d) 4
151. A club consists of 24 members. The ratio of
men to women can be
(a) 2 : 3. (b) 3 : 4.
(c) 1 : 3. (d) None of these
152. Ratio between sum and difference of two
numbers is 3 : 1. Find the ratio between the
numbers.
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
(c) 4 : 2 (d) 3 : 2
153. `750 is distributed in A, B and C such that A :
B = 5 : 2, B : C = 7 : 13, then what is A’s part?
(a) `140 (b) `250
(c) `260 (d) `350
154. A and B started a business with investment
of `42,000 and `63,000 respectively. After
4 months B withdraws from the business.
At the end of a year they got `9,600 as total
profit. Find the share of B.
(a) `5,600 (b) `2,800
(c) `3,200 (d) `6,400
155. A and B entered into a partnership with invest-
ments of `15,000 and `40,000 respectively.
After 3 months A left from the business, at
the same time C joins with `30,000. At the
end of 9 months they got `7,800 as profit.
Find the share of B.
(a) `4,800 (b) `600
(c) `2,400 (d) `1,200
156. A started a business with a capital of
` 10,000 and 4 months later, B joined him
with a capital of ` 5,000. What is the share
of A in the total profit of ` 2,000 at the end
of the year?
(a) `800 (b) `1,000
(c) `1,500 (d) `1,800
157. A, B and C enter into a partnership. A con-
tributes `320 for 4 months, B contributes
`510 for 3 months, and C contributes `270
for 5 months. If the total profit is `208, find
the profit share of the partner A.
(a) `76.50 (b) `64
(c) `67.50 (d) `46
158. Radhika and Renuka enter into a partnership
with investment of `50,000 and `70,000
respectively. Renuka gets 10% of the total
profit for maintaining the business and the
remaining profit is distributed between them
in the ratio of their investments. If the total
profit at the end of the years is `30,000, find
the total share of Renuka.
(a) `16,575 (b) `21,500
(c) `18,750 (d) `11,250
159. In a partnership, A invests
1
6
of the capital
for
1
6
of the time, B invests
1
3
of the capi-
tal for 1
3
of the time and C, the rest of the
capital for whole time. Find A’s share of the
total profit of `2,300.
(a) `100 (b) `500
(c) `800 (d) `900
160. Two pipes A and B fill a tank in 15 h and 20
h respectively while a third pipe C can empty
the full tank in 25 h. All the three pipes are
opened in the beginning. After 10 h, C is
closed. In how much time will the tank be
full?
(a) 10 h (b) 11 h
(c) 11.5 h (d) 12 h

LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Questions 161 to 163): In each of the
following questions, four numbers are given, out of
which three are alike in some matter while one is
different. Choose the one which is different from the
rest three.
161. (a) 1236 (b) 2346
(c) 4566 (d) 5686
162. (a) 369 (b) 462
(c) 761 (d) 862
163. (a) 21 (b) 69
(c) 81 (d) 83
164. A man leaves for his office from his house. He
walks towards East. After moving a distance
of 20 m, he turns South and walks 10 m. Then
he walks 35 towards the West and further
5 m towards the North. He then turns towards
East and walks 15 m. What is the straight dis-
tance (in metres) between his initial and final
positions?
(a) 0
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
165. Going 50 m to South of her house, Radhika
turns left and goes another 20 m. Then, turn-
ing to the North, she goes 30 m and then
starts walking to her house. In which direc-
tion is she walking now?
(a) North-West (b) North
(c) South-East (d) East
166. Of the five villages P, Q, R, S and T situated
close to each other, P is to the West of Q, R is
to the South of P,T is to the North of Q and S is
to the East of T. Then, R is in which direction
with respect to S?
(a) North-West (b) South-East
(c) South-West (d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Directions: In the following questions, the symbols
@, #, $, %, * are used with the following meanings
as illustrated below:
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’;
‘A # B’ means ‘A is greater than or equal
to B’;
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor
less than B’;
‘A % B’ means ‘A is less than B’;
‘A * B’ means ‘A is neither less than nor
equal to B’.
Now, in each of the following questions,
assuming the given statements to be true, find
which of the three conclusions I, II and III
given below them is/are definite true.
167. Statements: K @ L, L % N, E # N
Conclusions: I. K % E II. E * L
III. N * K
(a) Only I and II are true
(b) Only II and III are true
(c) Only I and III are true
(d) All are true
(e) None of these
168. Statements: D $ T, T * P, M @ P
Conclusions: I. D * M II. M % T
III. D # P
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only I and II are true
(c) All are true
(d) Only I and III are true
(e) None of these
169. Statements: T # R, R % L, L * K
Conclusions: I. T % L II. K * R
III. T # K
(a) Only I is true.
(b) Only I and II are true.
(c) All are true.
(d) Only II and III are true.
(e) None of these.
170. Statements: N % S, S # U, U * M
Conclusions: I. M % S II. N % U
III. N * M
(a) Only I is true.
(b) Only II is true.
(c) All are true.
(d) Only I and III are true.
(e) None is true.
171. Statements: C $ J, J % V, E @ V
Conclusions: I. E % J II. C * V
III. C * E
(a) None is true.
(b) Only II is true.
(c) Only III is true.
(d) Only II and III are true.
(e) All are true.

Directions: In each of the following questions,
arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence
and then choose the most appropriate sequence
from amongst the alternative provided below each
question.
172. 1. Book 2. Pulp
3. Timber 4. Jungle
5. Paper
(a) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3 (b) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
(c) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 (d) 5, 4, 3, 1, 2
173. 1. Travel
2. Destination
3. Payment
4. Berth/ Seat Number
5. Reservation
6. Availability of berth/seat for reservation
(a) 1, 2, 5, 4, 3, 6
(b) 2, 6, 3, 5, 4, 1
(c) 5, 3, 4, 1, 6, 2
(d) 6, 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
174. 1. Heel 2. Shoulder
3. Skull 4. Neck
5. Knee 6. Chest
7. Thigh 8. Stomach
9. Face 10. Hand
(a) 2, 4, 7, 10, 1, 5, 8, 9, 6, 3
(b) 3, 4, 7, 9, 2, 5, 8, 10, 6, 1
(c) 4, 7, 10, 1, 9, 6, 3, 2, 5, 8
(d) 3, 9, 4, 2, 10, 6, 8, 7, 5, 1
175. 1. Study 2. Job
3. Examination 4. Earn
5. Apply
(a) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(c) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 (d) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
176. 1. Table 2. Tree
3. Wood 4. Seed
5. Plant
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
(c) 4, 5, 2, 3, 1 (d) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1
177. 1. Patient 2. Diagnosis
3. Bill 4. Doctor
5. Treatment
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 (b) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
(c) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
178. 1. Probation 2. Interview
3. Selection 4. Appointment
5. Advertisement 6. Application
(a) 5, 6, 2, 3, 4, 1 (b) 5, 6, 3, 2, 4, 1
(c) 5, 6, 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 6, 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
179. Arrange the following items from general to
particular:
1. Animal 2. Feline
3. Leopard 4. Mammal
5. Vertebrate 6. Cat
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 (b) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2, 6
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5, 6 (d) 1, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6
180. P, Q, R, S, T and U are 6 members of a family.
P is the father of Q.
R is the sister of T’s husband.
S is P’s son and R’s brother.
U is T’s daughter.
How can Q and U be related?
(a) Q is U’s aunt.
(b) U is Q’s niece.
(c) Q is U’s uncle.
(d) Either a and b are true or b and c are true.
181. Following are some information about a
family consisting of 4 members P, Q, R and
S. P is an adult male and has 2 children. Q is
the son-in-law of P. R is Q’s brother-in-law.
There is just one couple in the family. Who is
the daughter of P?
(a) P (b) R
(c) Q (d) S
182. In a family, P and Q are brothers. Q’s mother
is the grandmother of R’s brother’s grand-
daughter. Who is P’s father?
(a) R
(b) R’s brother
(c) Q
(d) None of these
183. P and Q meet each other in a room. P says to
Q, ‘Although your wife is my mother and your
father is the husband of my grandmother, yet
I am not your son’.
What is the relationship between P and Q?
(a) P is Q’s daughter
(b) P’s father is Q’s brother
(c) Q’s father is P’s grandfather
(d) Both a and c are true
184. In a family of 5, P is the father of R. S is Q’s
son. S has R as sister. Therefore, if U has P as
brother, then the relationship between Q and
U is as follows:
(a) Q is U’s daughter
(b) U is Q’s wife
(c) Q is the sister-in-law of U
(d) Q is U’s brother-in-law

Directions: Based on the following information
about a family, answer the 4 questions (Questions
185–188) that follow:
P and Q are the daughter and son, respec-
tively of R and S. R is a male who is married
to S. Q married U, who is the daughter of
V. W is V’s husband. V’s son married X and
had 2 children Y and Z. U conceived M and
N as her daughters 5 years after her marriage
to Q.
185. How are N and P related?
(a) N is P’s aunt
(b) P is N’s aunt
(c) N is P’s daughter
(d) P is N’s mother-in-law
186. What is the relationship between W andY?
(a) W is Y’s grandfather
(b) Y is W’s son
(c) Y is W’s son-in-law
(d) None of these
187. How are U and P related?
(a) P is U’s mother-in-law
(b) U is P’s sister-in-law
(c) P is U’s aunt
(d) U is P’s granddaughter
188. What is the relationship between V and Z?
(a) V is Z’s grandmother
(b) Z is V’s niece
(c) Z is V’s son-in-law
(d) None of these
189. In a banquet hall, a few waiters have been
ordered to assume standing positions. X is
30 ft to the left of Y, who is 40 ft to the south
of Z. P is 20 ft to the north of X, while Q
is standing 20 ft to the east of Z. Thus, the
person who is standing to the north-east of
the person, to whom X is standing to the west
of, is
(a) P. (b) Q.
(c) Y. (d) Z.
190. In the above situation, the distance between P
and Q is
(a) between 50 and 60 ft.
(b) more than 60 ft.
(c) less than 50 ft.
(d) none of the above.
191. In the problem 189, if a person goes to each
waiter in the order P, X, Y, Z and Q and then
retraces his steps following the same route
back to P, how much distance will he have
covered?
(a) 110 ft (b) 200 ft
(c) 220 ft (d) 250 ft
192. Bimal was scribbling on a piece of paper
with a pencil. After a while, he realized that
he has drawn a number of straight lines,
which are either parallel or perpendicular
to each other. Each line had a distinct char-
acteristic and he numbered the lines I, II,
III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX, X and XI and
wondered which direction a line is vis-à-vis
another. These are the information he saw at
a glance.
I, II, III, IV and V will not intersect each
other no matter how far they are extended
in either direction, while the same can be
said of VI, VII, VIII, IX, X and XI.
II is 10 cm to the west of I.
V is 10 cm to the east of IV.
III is 5 cm to the east of II.
VI is 5 cm to the south of VII.
V lies midway between II and III.
VII is 5 cm to the south of VI.
VIII is 10 cm to the south of VI.
IX lies midway between VI and VIII.
XI lies 15 cm to the south of IX, while X
lies midway between VIII and XI.
Based on the aforesaid information, answer
the following questions.
The distance between lines V and I is
(a) 10 cm (b) 5 cm
(c) 7.5 cm (d) 2.5 cm
193. Line IV lies to the
(a) East of line I. (b) North of line I.
(c) South of line I. (d) West of line I.
194. The distance between lines V and I is the
same as that between V and
(a) II. (b) IV.
(c) III. (d) None of these
195. In the set of lines from I to V, the two set lie
on the extreme east and extreme west, respec-
tively are
(a) I and IV. (b) I and III.
(c) II and IV. (d) IV and I.
196. Which of the following pairs of lines are 5 cm
apart from each other?
(a) III and IV (b) I and II
(c) IX and X (d) None of these

197. Which of the following lines lies to the south
of VIII?
(a) II (b) X
(c) VI (d) VII
198. The distance between VII and IX is the same
as that between
(a) VIII and XI.
(b) VI and VIII.
(c) III and IV.
(d) All of the above.
199. Which of the following lines would have
coincided with each other had IX been shifted
10 cm to the south?
(a) IX and VIII (b) VII and IX
(c) IX and X (d) XI and IX
200. Which of the following is true?
(a) II lies to the east of V.
(b) X lies to the north of XI.
(c) VI lies to the west of III.
(d) VIII lies to the north of IX.
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (b)
51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (a)
71. (c) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (a) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (c)
81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (d) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (d) 90. (d)
91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (c) 100. (b)
101. (b) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (b) 106. (c) 107. (b) 108. (b) 109. (b) 110. (c)
111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (a) 114. (b) 115. (b) 116. (a) 117. (c) 118. (c) 119. (d) 120. (d)
121. (b) 122. (a) 123. (a) 124. (c) 125. (d) 126. (d) 127. (d) 128. (d) 129. (d) 130. (b)
131. (c) 132. (d) 133. (c) 134. (a) 135. (a) 136. (b) 137. (b) 138. (a) 139. (a) 140. (c)
141. (a) 142. (d) 143. (c) 144. (a) 145. (b) 146. (b) 147. (a) 148. (d) 149. (b) 150. (a)
151. (c) 152. (a) 153. (d) 154. (c) 155. (a) 156. (c) 157. (b) 158. (c) 159. (a) 160. (d)
161. (d) 162. (c) 163. (d) 164. (b) 165. (a) 166. (c) 167. (d) 168. (b) 169. (e) 170. (a)
171. (a) 172. (c) 173. (b) 174. (d) 175. (c) 176. (c) 177. (c) 178. (a) 179. (d) 180. (d)
181. (d) 182. (b) 183. (d) 184. (c) 185. (b) 186. (a) 187. (b) 188. (a) 189. (b) 190. (a)
191. (c) 192. (c) 193. (d) 194. (b) 195. (a) 196. (d) 197. (b) 198. (d) 199. (c) 200. (b)

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