Passkey Providers and Enabling Portability: FIDO Paris Seminar.pptx
Comp
1. A CMM 1 B CMM 2
C CMM 0 D All of Above
A Equvivance partitioning B Fault injection
C Code Coverage D None of above
A LOC B Test Metric
C Product Metric D Process Metric
A Perfomance Testing B White Box Testing
C Black Box Testing D Alpha Testing
A 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & are not B
1,2 are valid reasons;3 & 4 & are
1 Phase defination is covered in
2 Which is a black box testing method?
5 1) Testing fault 2) Software fault 3) Design fault 4) Documentation Fault
3 A Metrics used to measure the charestric of documentation and code is called
4 A Non Functional Testing is called
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A 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & are not B
1,2 are valid reasons;3 & 4 & are
not
C 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 is not D
All of them are valid reasons for
failure
A
Component testing should be
performed by development
B
Component testing is also know as
isolation or module testing
C
Component testing should have
completion criteria planned
D
Component testing does not
involve regression testing
A Management report B Interim Test report
C Project status report D Final test report
A Is unlikely to be completed on scheduleB Is likely to be fault-free
C Is unlikely to cause a failure D Is likely to be liked by the users
A At most 0.81 B Equal to 0.9
C Greater than 0.9 D At least 1/0.81
6
Which of the following statements about component testing is not true?
9 In unit testing of a module, it is found that for a set of test data, at the maximum
90% of the code alone were tested with the probability of success 0.9. The
reliability of module is ?
7 Function/Test matrix is a type of
8 A reliable system will be one that:
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2. A 50% B 60%
C 30% D 70%
A
A white box testing technique
appropriate for component testin
B
A black box testing technique than
can only be used during system
testing
C
A black box testing technique
appropriate to all levels of testing
D
A black box testing technique
used only by developers
A Proxy B Driver
C Stub D None of the above
Equivalence partitioning is:
A program P calls two subprograms P1 and P2. P1 can fail 50% times and P2 can
fail 40% times. The program P can fail ?
To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the
function and passes it test data.
10
11
12
A company needs to develop a strategy for software product development for
which it has a choice of two programming languages L1 and L2. The number of
13
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A 4000 B 5000
C 4333 D 4667
A 234.25 B 933.45
C 142.50. D 230.25
A Capture test cases B Capture requirements
15 Use Case is used for
14 A company needs to develop digital signal processing software for one of its
newest inventions. The software is expected to have 40000 lines of code. The
company needs to determine the effort in person-months needed to develop
which it has a choice of two programming languages L1 and L2. The number of
lines of code (LOC) developed using L2 is estimated to be twice the LOC
developed with L1. the product will have to be maintained for five years. Various
parameters for the company are given in the table below.
Parameter Language L1 Language L2
Man years needed for development LOC / 10000 LOC / 10000
Development Cost per year Rs. 10,00,000 Rs. 7,50,000
Maintenance time 5 years 5 years
Cost of maintenance per year Rs. 1,00,000 Rs. 50,000
Total cost of the project includes cost of development and maintenance. What is
the LOC for L1 for which the cost of the project using L1 is equal to the cost of
the project using L2?
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3. C Capture design specification D all of the above.
A Static testing B State Transition Testing
C Dynamic Testing D none of the above.
A
ability of system to run without
failure
B ability of system to support users
C
The poit at which system break
down
D all of the above.
A Testing tool B Test Methedology
C Test Metric D all of the above.
A estimating testing effort B perfoming LCSAJ testing
C Defect calculation D None of above
Code review is for16
17 Stress testing measures
19 Metric based technique is for
18 QTP is
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C Defect calculation D None of above
A No B Yes
C May be yes D None of the above.
A Unit Testing B Integration Testing
C System Testing D None of the above.
A By repetating test case, remove errorsB correct errors
C update errors D None of the above.
A Prototype Method B Agile Method
C Waterfall Method D all of the above.
A SpiralModel B Waterfall model
C V- Model D all of the above.
20 Is it possible to have a software product with "Zero defect"?
23 Face to face Communication is in
22 Pesting Paradox in testing testcase is
21 A Testing which detect the defects in fully functional software is
25 Test Planning includes
24 W - model is updation of
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4. A Test Strategies B Test methods
C Test Bed Creation D all of the above.
A QTP B Silktest
C Selenium D all of the above.
A Load Runner B BugZilla
C Qtp D all of the above.
A alpha testing B Hardening testing
C System Testing D all of the above.
A Integration testing B Alpha Testing
C stress testing D Unit testing
26 Example of Testing Tool
29 Data independence means
28 To Detect cracks and Holes in the networks by
27 Non functional testing tool
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C stress testing D Unit testing
A Common Testing System B Commercial off the shelf
C Code and Test system D None of above
A Autocad B Flash
C Mcafee D all of the above.
A Understanding of testing tools B
understanding of functional
domain
C
Expertise team lcontromonitoring
an
D all of the above.
A Reliablility B Reusablility
C Portability D all of the above.
A Black Box Testing B White Box Testing
32 Required Skill of Test Manager
31 COTS example is
30 COTS is
34 Which testing devides input domain into class for testcase?
33 COTS is for
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5. C Equvivance Testing D Boundry Value Analysis
A Inspection B WalkThrough
C Technical D all of the above.
A Inspection B WalkThrough
C Technical D all of the above.
A Recorder B Author
C Moderator D Reviewer
A Analysis phase B Design Phase
C Code Phase D Testing Phase
35 Types of review
38 SRS is an artifact of
37 The person who records the procedding of review meeting is
36 Group Activity can be seen in
39 Nonfunctional requirement is
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A Reliability B usability
C maintainability D All of above
A Varification B Testing
C Validation D all of the above.
A Less iteration B Error detection at later stage
C Not applied to real time system D All of above
A Waterfall model B Spiral Model
C Prototype Model D all of the above.
A User Get Idea about system B Low cost
C Fast Development D All of above
41 Disadvtage of prototype model is
40 Evaluting Software during various phases of SDLC is called
39 Nonfunctional requirement is
44 Important aspect of coding is
43 advtage of prototype model is
42 Risk Analysis phase is in
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6. A productivity B efficiency
C reliability D all of the above.
A Architectural design B data design
C Interface design D All of above
A IBM B Microsoft
C Motorola D Intel
A Abstraction B Information Hiding
C refinement D 90-120 days
A n B n*(n-1)/2
C nlog(n) D n*(n+1)/2
47 Which of the following is in design stage…
46 RAD model was proposed by
45 Data structure of application is in
48 If n number of programmers are in team , then number of paths is
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C nlog(n) D n*(n+1)/2
A 10% B 20%
C 5% D 0
A Data Element B Behaviour element
C Class based element D Scenario based element
A cardinality B modality
C directionality D Both (A) and (B)
A Flow base element B Class base element
C Scenario base element D Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dic
A Well defined process B Data element Hiarchy
C Specification design D Obeservable mode of behaviou
50 Which of these is not element in object oriented analysis model
49 if 99% code is written in C and 1% code is written in assembly lenguage then
increse in execution time compare to 1% code written in assembly language is
53 Behaviour modeling is for
52 UML diagram is useful in representing
51 Relationship shown in data model is for
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7. A transorm data element B Show relationship between data
C Reaction to external event D all of the above.
A 45% B 100%
C 90% D 50%
A 30% B 70%
C 10% D 20%
A Method B Tools
C Manufacturing D Process
56 A program P has p1 and p2 sub programs. Probability of p1 fails is 50% and p2
fails is 40%. What about the probability os P fails
55 In unit testing of a module, the maximum 90% of the code alone were tested
with the probability of success 0.5. The reliability of module is ?
54 State diagram is for
58 Five generic software frame work activities are
57 Which of this is not software engineering layers
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A
analysis , Design, Code,
maintenance,test
B
communication,planning,modellin
g,construction,deployment
C
communication,risk management,
design,code,test
D Analysis,planning,design,code,test
A iterative in nature B not produce throw away
C accommodate changes easily D all of above
A complex project B small project
C develop core module D all of above
A Test bed B Traceablity Matrix
C Test Metric D All of above
A Retesting B Regresssion testing
C Adhoc Testing D perfomance testing
59 Evolutionary model is
58 Five generic software frame work activities are
62 Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build
called as
61 The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered
when writing test cases
60 Incremental model approach in software development is useful in
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8. A Sometimes B Many Times
C Always D None
A Testing and validation B Reverse engineering
C Identification of faults D Development
A Input B Output
C Storage D Processing
A Inheritance B Aggregation
C Object D Class
A Input B Output
65 The first item defined for a new system is its
64 Top down approach is used for
63 Assertions are conditions which are true at the point of execution
67 The first item defined for a new system is its
66 The feature of the object oriented paradigm which helps code reuse is
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A Input B Output
C Storage D Processing
A TRUE B FALSE
C D
A
Are delivered on time and under
budget
B Have complete documentation
C
Are thoroughly tested before
delivery to the customer
D
Have measurable specification
for process outputs
A Analysis, design, testing B Definition, development, support
C What, how, where D
Programming, debugging,
maintenance
A Dependence matrix B SRS
C Cause-effect graph D Chart
68 To test competing product in to the market comparision testing is done
71
Coupling and cohesion can be represented using a
70
What are the three generic phases of software engineering?
69 A key concept of quality control is that all work products
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9. A Scope, constraints, market B Business and marketing concerns
C
Technology, finance, time,
resources
D
Technical prowess of the
developers
A Input B Output
C Storage D Processing
A Inheritance B Aggregation
C Object D Class
A Level 1 B Level 2
C Level 3 D Level 4
74 The feature of the object oriented paradigm which helps code reuse is
73 The first item defined for a new system is its
72
Software feasibility is based on which of the following .
76
75 The process is at least documented in CMM
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A P and R B Q and R
C P and S D Q and S
A
the data records of the file are
organized not in the same order
as the data entries of the index
B
the data records of the file are
organized in the same order as
the data entries of the index.
C
it is on a set of fields that form a
candidate key
D
it is on a set of fields that include
the primary key
77 An index is clustered, if
76
Which of the following statements are TRUE about an SQL query?
P : An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause even if it does not have a GROUP
BY clause
Q: An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause only if it has a GROUP BY clause
R : All attributes used in the GROUP BY clause must appear in the SELECT clause
S : Not all attributes used in the GROUP BY clause need to appear in the SELECT
clause
78 Function point metric of a software also depends on the
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10. A Number of function needed B
Number of final users of the
software
C
Number of external inputs and
outputs
D all of above
A Stamp coupling B Content coupling
C Control coupling D Data coupling
A Software functions B Process activities
C Information domain values D Project schedule
A Inheritance B abstraction
80
FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on
79 The worst type of coupling is
81
Cohesion is closely bound to
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C coupling D None of above
A Control coupling B Content coupling
C message coupling D None of above
A Cyclomatic complexity B Function count
C LOC D Program length
A Software design B Testing
C Software requirement specification D Both (A) and (B
A ISO 9000 B ISO 9003
C ISO9002 D ISO 9001
A Customer Myths B Management Myths
83 Which is not a size metric?
82
Which coupling is high ?
86 Many causes of the software crisis can be traced to mythology based on
85 The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software engineering is
84 IEEE 830-1993 is a IEEE recommended standard for
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11. C Practitioner Myths D all of above
A RAD B Prototype
C SpiralModel D None of above
A content coupling B stamp coupling
C messsage coupling D control coupling
A Spiral Model B Prototype Model
C Water Fall Model D all of above
A step-wise refinement B modularity
C flow charting D loop invariants
89 For a data entry project for office staff who have never used computers before
(user interface and user-friendliness are extremely important), one will use
88 Data structure coupling is also know as
87 What is an incremental software process model that emphasize an extremely
short development cycle?
90 Top-down design does not require
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C flow charting D loop invariants
A Cyclomatic number B Hamiltonian circuit
C Eulerian cycle D None of the above
A Stress testing B Unit testing
C Beta testing D Mutation testing
A user requirement B number of errors present
C quality of the design D software engineers experience
A Error correction B Establishing scope
C Adaptation D Enhancement
A Adaptive maintenance B Perfective maintenance
C Corrective maintenance D None of above
92 One of the fault base testing techniques is
91 Which of the following graph theoretic concept will be useful in software
testing?
95 Emergency fixes known as patches are result of
94 Which one of these are not software maintenance activity
93 Reliability of software is directly dependent on
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12. A Adaptive maintenance B Corrective maintenance
C Perfective maintenance D Preventative maintenance
A Size measurement B Design recovery
C Cost measurement D All of the above
A Analysis Modelling B Requirement Gathering
C Formulation D User Interface Prototyping
A Highly Coheshive B Comprehenshive
C Loosly coupled D All of above
98
Which of the following is not one of the WebApp requirements analysis tasks?
97 Reverse engineering is the process which deals with
96 Changes made to an information system to add the desired but not necessarily
the required features is called
99 As use-cases are organised to functional packages.Each functional Package must
be
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C Loosly coupled D All of above
A Content B maintainability
C links D Nevigation
A Forms B cookies
C browser D links
A Reusable B Organized
C Repeatable D Ad hoc
A user requirement B number of errors present
C quality of the design D software engineers experience
A Yes B No
C Can't Say D May be yes
101 Which of the following is not the WebApp Interface Mechanism?
100 Which of the following is not one of the dimensions of quality used to assess a
WebApp
104 Graph based testing is only applied to object oriented system?
103 Reliability of software is directly dependent on
102 Which of these terms is a level name in the Capability Maturity Model?
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13. A OO software B Application Software
C System Software D None of above
A SRS B input
C output D Software Metric
A Analysis Effort method B Function Point Analysis
C COCOMO D All of Above
A 200 man-hours B 300 LOC
C 30 FP D None of above
Methods for estimation in software engineering include:
if a software engineer has built a small web-based calculator application, we
can say that the project effort is
106
____ a measure of some property of a piece of software or its specifications
108
107
105 Use case provide useful input for design of black-box test for
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C 30 FP D None of above
A 200 man-hours B 300 LOC
C 40 person-month D None of above
A version control B naming convention (programming)
C software archival agreements D all of above
A the project's progress B Project's scheudle
C Project's planning D None of above
A ISO 9000 B ISO 9001
110
Software Configuration Management include
109 if a software engineer has built a small web-based calculator application, we
can say that the software size is
112
Risk management is associated with
111 The purpose of project monitoring and control is to keep the team and
management up to date on
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14. C ISO 31000 D None of above
A Riskevent/Probability of occurance B Risk event x Probability of Occurrence
C Constant (3.0) D None of above
A Risk mitigation B Risk monitoring
C Risk reduction D None of above
A Risk mitigation B Risk monitoring
C Risk reduction D Risk retention
113
Composite Risk Index value =
116
115
Self Insurance falls under
114
sprinklers are designed to put out a fire to reduce the risk of loss by fire is called
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A
we can always design test data to
execute the controlled statement
B
the problem of designing test data
to execute the controlled
statement is undecidable
C
the problem of designing test data
to execute the controlled
statement is intractable
D none of the above
A an infinite number of test cases B 2^ 48 test cases
C 2^164 test cases D None of above
A
error in code as negative values
remain negative
B The code finds absolute value of y
C
error in code as positive values
remain negative
D None of above
116
In an if statement
117 Jacob has written a program to complete the roots of the quadratic equation
ax2+bx+c=0. Assuming a 16 bit computer to exhaustively test his program for all
integer values for a, b and c he requires
118 Consider the code below
begin
If (y<=0) then y = 0-y;
abs = y
End;
119 Ashok rewrites part of the code in some production code making it more
efficient. This maintenance activity is called
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15. A perfective B adaptive
C corrective D none of above
A perfective B adaptive
C corrective D none of above
A
Testing can show the presence of
bug but never absence
B Testing can always find the bug
C
If we test enough we can find all
bugs
D None of above
A By Analyst B By programmer
120 An error is detected in some production code. The maintenance effort to fix the
error is called
121
Choose the correct statement
122
Testing is best done
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C By Software Engineer D By independent test team
A
The tests he generates may give
nonrepeatable results
B
The tests will always given
repeatable results
C
He will find the bug for all runs of
the program
D None of the above.
124 Ramesh wants to test the folowing program by generating random test values
for x and y. The error in the program is z = 22 should be there
read (x);
read ( y);
If (x== y) then
z = 2;
else
z = 0;
end If;
123 Clinton wants to test his module where he had forgotten to initialize x
If x = 0 then
Write ("abnormal")
Else
Write ("normal");
End if;
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16. A
Random testing is insufficient as
the bug may never detected
B
Random testing will always find
the bug
C
Random testing always generates
equal value of x and y
D None of above
A Ramesh's testing is much better B
Suresh's testing may be better
than Ramesh
C
200 test cases would have been
enough
D None of the above
A
His method of edge coverage is
not enough
B
His testing is exhaustive as he will
find all the bugs
C
His test data has to be carefuly
designed and will work for all flow
graphs
D None of above
125 Suresh and Ramesh design test cases for a fragment of code. Suresh runs 100
test cases but Ramesh runs 200 test cases
126 Mohit writes test data which will exercise each edge of the flow graph for
his program
127
Consider the above modules Ca and Cb where a and b are the sizes. Then
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A E (a + b) > Ea + Eb B E (a + b) < Ea +Eb
C E (a + b) > =Ea + Eb D None of the above
A 01:10 B 01:02
C 01:05 D 01:20
A 01:03:05 B `1:10:100
C 01:03:10 D 01:02:05
A Ea < Eb B Ea > Eb
128
Variation in debugging : coding ability has been reported to be
129 Form the detailed design speciication. If the coding is done in C++ : C : assembler
the resulting code sizes will be on the average.
130
Consider two modules A and B, both utility programs in the same organization
developed by the same team of programmers, where a and b are the sizes,
respetively. The cost to develop each module is Ca and Cb. The efforts are Ea
and Eb. if Ca > Cb then
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17. C Ea = Eb D both (A) and (C)
A Data abstraction B modularity
C concurrency D data hiding
A content,common,control,stamp B common,content,control,stamp
C stamp,control,content,common D None of above
A feasibility B Testing
C Design D Maintenance
132 The rating of coupling of modules for strongest (least desirable) to weakest
(most desirable) are
131
Informational cohesion is a realization of
133
The largest %cost of software life cycle is in
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C Design D Maintenance
A Process B Method
C Architectue D None of above
A error in the program B cycle in the program
C independent logical path D statement in the program
A error in the program B cycle in the program
C independent logical path D statement in the program
135
Cyclomatic complexity metric provide information regarding number of
134
Which is not a component of Object Oriented s/w Engineering?
137 Which of the following is not the characteristic of software ?
136 Cyclomatic complexity metric provide information regarding number of
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18. A Software does not wear out B Software is flexible
C Software is not manufactured D Software is always correct
A B Productivity
C Reliability D Size
A Functionality B Productivity
C quality D Efficiency
A Rupee B Person
C Person - Months D Month
138 Which of the following is not a product matrix ?
141 Match the following
140 Efforts is measured in terms of ?
139 Which of the following is not a process metric ?
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A 1-A , 2-C , 3-D, 4-B B 1-B , 2-C , 3-D, 4-A
C 1-C , 2-A , 3-B, 4-D D 1-C , 2-A , 3-D, 4-B
A 10 programmers B 8 programmers
C 13 programmers D 100/13 programmers
A 10 B 13
C 5 D 8
144
If the entire program is written in FORTRAN, the percentage increase in the
execution time, compared to writing the entire program in FORTRAN and
rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ?
143
If 99% of the program is written in FORTRAN and the remaining 1% in assembly
language, the percentage increase in the programming time compared to writing
the entire program in FORTRAN and rewriting the 1% in assembly language is ?
142 To completely write the program in FORTRAN and rewrite the 1% code in
assembly language, if the project needs 13 days, the team consists of ?
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19. A 9 B 8
C D 0.9
A Robustness B Recovery from error
C Security D None of above
A 100 B 48
C 40 D 36
A
uncover problem araes before
they " go critical "
B track potential risks
C
assess the status of an ongoing
project
D All of above
147 Project indicator enables a software project manager to ?
146
Given a source code with 10 operators includes 6 unique operators, and 6
operand including 2 unique operands. The program volume is ?
145 Stress testing measures
148 Once object oriented programming has been accomplished, unit testing is
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A Partition teting B Random testing
C Fault based testing D All of above
A Technical B Management
C Both A and B D None of above
A Provide batch totals B Provide for a check digit
C Provide hash totals D all of above
150 To avoid errors in transcription and transposition, during data entry the system
analyst should ?
149 In risk analysis of spiral model, which of the following risk includes ?
148 Once object oriented programming has been accomplished, unit testing is
applied for each class. Class tests includes ?
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20. 1 What is the grammar for generating strings like a=b=c?
A
right→leƩer=right|leƩer
letter→a|b|..|z
B
right→leƩer=leƩer
letter→a|b|..|z
C
right→leƩer=leƩer|leƩer
letter→a|b|..|z
D
right→right=leƩer|leƩer
letter→a|b|..|z
2 Out of the following grammars, which one is right associative grammar?
A string→string+string|0|1|2|3 B stmt→if (expr) stmt else stmt
C
right→leƩer=right|leƩer
letter→a|b|..|z
D
list→list+digit|digit
digit→0|1|2|3
A synthesized B inherited
C syntax D parsed
A scanning B parsing
C stack D analysis
A left-to-right B top-down
C right-to-left D Bottom-up
A Linear,Hierarchical,Semantic B linear,portable,bottom-up
C Linear,nonlinear,synthesis D linear,nonlinear,top-down
A lexical analysis B semantic analysis
C syntax analysis D synthesis
A syntax tree B semantic tree
C directed acyclic graph D graph
A macro preprocessor B rational preprocessors
C language extensions D File inclusion
6 In compiler, analysis consists of which three phases?
9 Who allows a user to define shorthands for longer constructs?
7 Hierarchical analysis is also called ___________
8 __________ is the compressed representation of the parse tree.
3 An attribute is said to be ____ if its value at a parse tree node is determined
from attribute values at the children of the node.
4 __________is the process of determining if a string of tokens can be generated
by a grammar.
5 __________ can handle large class of grammars and translation schemes.
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21. A hypothetical machine code B relocatable machine code
C pass code D register transfer code
A backtracking B forwarding
C backpatching D looping
A parsing rule B syntax directed definition
C operator precedence D semantic actions
A token B context free grammar
C lexeme D regular expression
A semantic analyzer B lexical analyzer
C code generator D parser
A parsing,semantic analysis B
regular expression,context free
grammar
C scanning,lexical analysis D code generator,code optimization
A enhanced writability B enhanced portability
C enhanced readability D enhanced security
A lexeme B identifier
C pattern D symbol
A fi (a==f(x))… B a=(b
C a=b c D all of the above
16 The advantage of separating analysis phase into lexical analysis and parsing is
______________
17 const pi=3.1416, pi in lexical analysis is called _______
18 Which error will not be identified by lexical analyzer?
13 ___________ is used to describe patterns
14
Which part of the compiler strip out comments from the source programme?
15 Lexical analyzers are divided into cascade of which two phases?
10 The output of the second pass of assembler is called what?
11 The technique of merging intermediate and target code generation into one
pass is called __________.
12 In a translation scheme, ______ are embedded within the right sides of the
production.
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22. A ahmedabad B med
C bad D abad
A gjrt B jar
C gja D rag
A gjrt B rjg
C jug D rgu
A balanced constructs B nested constructs
C repeating strings D all of the above
A misspelling an identifier B
operator applied to incompatible
operand
C
arithmetic expression with
unbalanced parantheses
D infinitely recursive calls
A phrase level B panic mode
C error production D global correction
A canonical derivation B left derivation
C derived derivation D constant derivation
A rightmost derivation B leftmost derivation
C top down derivation D bottom-up derivation
A context free B context sensitive
C ambiguous D regular
20 Which is the substring of string gujarat?
19 Which is the prefix of the string ahmedabad?
23 Out of the following , which one is the syntactic error?
24 synchronizing token is used in which type of error recovery?
21 Which is the subsequence of the string gujarat?
22 What can not be described by regular expressions?
27 A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is said to
be
28 A left recursive grammar can cause a recursive descent parser with backtracking
to go into ____________
25 Rightmost derivations are sometimes called _________
26 E→-(E+E)→-(id+E)→(-id+id) , this is the example of
SUJJECT CODE: 3/16 PGCET
23. A infinite loop B panic mode
C recovery mode D execution mode
A
input buffer,stack,parsing
table,output stream
B
input string, stack, transition
diagram, output stream
C
input buffer,stack,regular
definition,output stream
D
input buffer,stack, error recovery,
output stream
A nonterminal B terminal
C synchronizing token D casesensitive character
A both B and C B hard to read
C
difficult to use for translation
process
D none of the above
A handle B right sentential form
C left sentential form D handle pruning
A handle B viable suffixes
C viable prefixes D suffixes
A number of symbols of lookahead B number of iterations
C number of symbols on stack D number of sets
A left most derivative B left-to-right scanning
C left recursion D left factoring
A right-to-left scanning B right side of the production
C right most derivation in reverse D right recursion
31 Left recursion elimination and left factoring make the resulting grammar
______________
32 A rightmost derivation in reverse can be obtained by what?
29 Which four components are there in table driven predictive parser?
30 FOLLOW function can be used as what during panic mode recovery?
35 In LR(k) parsing, "L" refers to _________
36 In LR(k) parsing, "R" refers to
33 The set of prefixes of right sentential forms that can apper on stack of a shift
reduce parser are called ______________
34 In LR(k) - k refers to ___________
SUJJECT CODE: 4/16 PGCET
24. A synthesized B Nonterminal
C terminal D inherited
A dependency graph B directed graph
C parse tree D syntax tree
A run time allocation B static allocation
C heap allocation D stack allocation
A pointer reference B dangling reference
C null reference D deallocated reference
A top down parser B bottom up parser
C predictive parser D recursive descent parser
A SLR parsing table B Canonical LR parsing table
C LALR parsing table D None of the above
A
Keeping track of variable
declaration
B
Checking for the correct use of L
values and R values
C both A and B D None of these
A syntax tree B post fix notation
C three address code D all of these
A shorter and slower B shorter and faster
C longer and slower D longer and faster
39 Which storage allocation strategy manages the run time storage?
40 When there is a reference to storage that has been deallocated, the reference is
called ___________________
37 Which attribute value at a node in a parse tree is defined in terms of attributes
at the parent and/or siblings of that node?
38 The directed graph that depicts interdependencies among the inherited and
synthesized attributes at the nodes in the parse tree is called ____
43 Inherited attribute is a natural choice in
44 An intermediate code form is
41 Shift reduce parsers are
42 YACC builds up
45 Instructions involving register operands are usually _______ and ______ than
those involving operands in memory.
SUJJECT CODE: 5/16 PGCET
25. A lexeme,pattern B pattern,lexeme
C pattern,token D token,lexeme
A predictive parser B recursive descent parser
C Both a and b D Canonical LR parsing
A LR(1) B LALR(1)
C LL(1) D operator precedence
A LL B LR
C both a and b D neither a nor b
A Expansion,control stacks B copying, control stacks
C Activation,control stacks D None of these
A Run time,compile time B link time,compile time
C compile time,run time D link time,link time
A starvation,dangling references B memory leaks,dangling references
C starvation,memory leaks D starvation,heap allocation
A Runtime B Peephole
C Algorithmic D logical
A Dead code B Hibernating code
C static code D dynamic code
47 Non backtracking top-down parsers are also called ___________
48 All SLR(1) grammars are also ________________.
46 A ____ is a rule that describes that set and a _____ is a sequence of characters
matching the patterns
51
Static binding is performed at ____ while dynamic binding is performed at _____
52 _____ and _____ are disadvantages of manual deallocation.
49 S-attributeddefinition can be implemented using ________ parsers.
50 The execution of a procedure body is called ___ of the procedure maintained on
_____.
55 What will be the precedence relation id __ + __id
53 Eliminating redundant load is an example of ____ optimization.
54 Instructions that compute a value that is never used is called ____.
SUJJECT CODE: 6/16 PGCET
26. A >,< B <,>
C >,= D <,=
A kernel item B nonkernel item
C itemset D initial item
A nonterminal,value B value,storage location
C storage location,value D terminal,storage location
A value B address of the memory location
C name D none of the above
A global B environment
C control D local
A weakly typed B static type
C strongly typed D none of the above
A "[a-zA-Z0-9]" B "[a-zA-Z]"
C "[^"n]*["n] D "[a-zA-Z0-9]"n
A make y.tab.c B make y.tab.c and y.tab.h
C make y.tab.c and link to lex library D make y.tab.c and lex.yy.c
A
"+" and "-" appears on the left
side of production
B "+" appears to the left of "-"
C
"+" has a higher precedence than
"-"
D "+" and "-" are left associative
61 What is the regular expression for matching quoted strings?
62 What is the prurpose of -d option when following command is executed? yacc -d
ch3-01.y
63 What is the interpretation of following YACC declaration? %left '+' '-
'
56 Initial item S'→.S is considered _________
59 The stack holds all the ____ variables defined within a function during its
activation.
60 What type of language is "C"?
57 The term l-value refers to the _________ of an expression and r-value refers to
the ____ of an expression.
58 In call-by-reference mechanism of parameter passing, the _____ of actual
parameter is passed to the function.
SUJJECT CODE: 7/16 PGCET
27. A
match one,two or three
occurences of letter A
B
match if the string contains A,1,2
and 3.
C
match one to three occurences of
letter A
D
match if the string contains A,1
and 3.
A id1:=id2+id3*60 B
temp1:=id3*60
id1:=id2+id3*60.0
C temp1:=id3*60 id1:=id2+temp1 D temp1:=id3*60.0 id1:=id2+temp1
A
expr→termexpr'
expr'→+termexpr'|Є
B
expr→expr'
expr'→term+expr
C
expr→termexpr'
expr'→+termexpr'
D expr→termexpr' expr'→Є
A
num→digit(.digit+)?(E(+|-
)?digit+)?
B
num→digit+(.digit+)?(E(+|-
)?digit+)
C num→digit+(.digit+)?(E(+)?digit+)? D
num→digit+(.digit+)?(E(+|-
)?digit+)?
A value B position
C address D sata
A value B
program counter machine
register
C address D function definition
A data constraints B heap constraints
C stack constraints D addressing constraints
70 The storage layout for data object is strongly influenced by the_______of the
target machine
71 what is true in case of static allocation
67
What is the regular definition of unsigned numbers?
68 In call-by-reference mechanism of parameter passing, the _____ of actual
parameter is passed to the function.
69 In case of procedure calls in C, what is saved on the stack?
64 What is the meaning of regular expression A{1,3}
65
What will be the output of the code optimizer, if the following input is given?
temp1:=inttoreal(60),temp2:=id3*temp1,temp3:=id2*temp2,id1:=temp3
66
What will be the output if we remove the left recursion? expr→expr+term|term
SUJJECT CODE: 8/16 PGCET
28. A
the size of the data object must be
known at compile time
B
recursive procedure are
unrestricted
C
data structure can be created
dynamically
D all of these
A
fields whose sizes are not fixed
early
B
fields whose sizes are defined at
run time
C fields whose sizes are not proper D fields whose sizes are fixed early
A logical error B syntactical
C lexical D semantic
A (a,((a,a),(a,a))) B (a,(a,a),(a,a)))
C (a,((a,a,(a,a))) D (a,((a,a,a,a)))
A
grammer generates all relational
expression
B
grammer generates all logical
expression
C
grammer generates all
mathematical expression
D
grammer generates all boolean
expression
A not ambiguous B not a valid grammar
C ambiguous D none of the above
A LALR(1) B operator precedence
C SLR(1) D undefined
76
This grammar is R → R' | 'R | RR | R* | (R) | a|b ______________
77 What type of grammer is this ?
S → Aa | bAc | dc | bda
A → d
73 Use of dangling references, is what type of error?
74 consider the grammer
S → (L) | S
L → L, S | S
which string we can generate out of above grammer ?
75 consider the grammer
bexpr → bexpr or bterm | bterm
bterm → bterm and bfactor | bfactor bfactor
→ rootbfactor | (bexpr) | true | false
72 what is placed in the middle in case of activation records ?
SUJJECT CODE: 9/16 PGCET
29. A ab B aabb
C abab D all of these
A {a} B {Є}
C {b} D {a,b}
A {$,a,b} B {}
C {a,b} D {Є}
A 6 a's B 3 a's
C 4 a's D 8 a's
A
produce a lexical analyzer from a
regular-expression
B use context free grammar
C use directed acyclic graph D use heap storage
A logical operations B speed of lexical analysis
C stack implementation D ease of operations
A DO is a keyword B DO is not a keyword
C lexical error D
lexical analyzer does panic mode
recovery
A
to push scanned characters back
in the input stream
B To stop taking the input
C
to push lookahead characters
back in the input stream
D To read next character
85 what is the purposr of function ungetc if used with lexical analyzer ?
82 how lexical analyzer can be implemented ?
83 out of following what is the most concerned part for compiler design ?
84 what does the lexical analyzer do in case of following input ? DO 5 I
= 1.25
79 S → AaAb | BbBa
A → Є
B → Є what is in the FIRST(A) ?
80 S → AaAb | BbBa
A → Є
B → Є what is in the FIRST(S) ?
81 Which string is not generated by the following grammer ?
S → aSa | aa
78 consider the grammer
S → aSbS | bSaS |Є
which string can be generated by the above grammer ?
SUJJECT CODE: 10/16 PGCET
30. A a-a B [a-a]
C a+ D a*
A bracket is not important B
order of regular expression is not
important
C concatenation is associative D regular expression r,s,t are equal
A r+ B (r|Є)*
C (r|0)* D r+0
A
To check whether the entered text
is tring or integer
B To convert the value to integer
C to hold the lexical value returned D undefine the value
A
integer telling how long the
lexeme is
B
string telling the value of the
lexeme
C number of digits in lexeme D number of alphabets in lexeme
A
each buffer half holds a sentinel
character at the beginning
B
both buffer half holds a sentinel
character at the end and
beginning
C
each buffer half does not hold a
sentinel character at the end
D
each buffer half holds a sentinel
character at the end
A
delim → blank | tab | newline ws
→ delim
B
delim → blank | tab | newline ws
→ delim*
C
delim → blank | tab | newline ws
→ delim+
D ws → blank | tab | newline
91
in the input buffering in lexical analysis where the sentinel character is kept ?
92
what regular expression lexical analyzer will use to strip out white spaces ?
88 what is the alternate representation for r*
89 for what purpose yylval is in LEX tool ?
90 for what purpose yyleng is in LEX tool ?
86 how can we specify pattern of zero or more a's in lexical analysis ?
87 what does the following rule specify if we write (rs)t = r(st) where r and s are
regular expressions.
SUJJECT CODE: 11/16 PGCET
31. A optional_fraction → (.digits) B optional_fraction → (.digits) +
C optional_fraction → (.digits) * D optional_fraction → (.digits) ?
A I={E→E'+.T} B I={E→E'+T}
C I={E→E'.+T} D I={E→E'+T.}
A not SLR(1) B SLR(1)
C ambiguous D right recursive
A evaluating B decorating
C analyzing D traversing
A directed acyclic graph B directed graph
C syntax tree D parse tree
A active B breadth first
C top down D depth first
A
definition of a procedure -
activation of the procedure
B
declaration of a name-binding of
the name
C
scope of a declaration - lifetime of
binding
D all of these
A as a hash indexed on the lexeme B as a pointer to the lexeme
100 How symbol table is stored in compiler?
97 What identifies the common subexpression in the expression?
98 The flow control in a program corresponds to _____ traversal of the activation
tree.
99
Match the static notation and its dynamic counterpart in context of compiler.
94 I={E→E'.+T} then goto(I,+) consists of ____________
95
What type of grammar is this?
S→L=R
S→R
L→*R
L→id
R→L
96 The process of computing the attribute values at the nodes is called ______ the
parse tree.
93 what regular expression lexical analyzer will we to find optional fractional part of
decimal number ?
SUJJECT CODE: 12/16 PGCET
32. C as a pattern index D as an array of values
A labs B bat
C ball D bracket
A egrep -n -e '[$p-s]' B egrep -n -e '[p|s]'
C egrep -n -e '[^p-s]' D egrep -n -e '[p-s]'
A nonrecursive call B
nondeterminism in transition
diagram
C recursive procedure call D determinism in transition diagram
A
translation interleaved with
parsing
B parse tree method
C rule based method D all of these
A state B
state symbol on the top of the
stack and current input symbol
C current input symbol D FOLLOW set
A reduce - reduce conflict B shift-reduce conflict
C shift - shift conflict D reduce-shift conflict
what is the syntex directed definition for the following ?
1. D → TL
2. T → int
3. T → real
4. L → L1, id
5. L → id
103 In which case we cannot build predictive parser?
104 Which methods can be used to compute the attributes of different symbols in
syntax directed definition?
105
106 in upon constructing LR(1) sets of items following grammer generates which
type of conflict ? S' → S
S → aAd | bBd | aBe | bAe
A → c
B → c
Who determines the shift reduce parsing decision?
107
101 Which pattern will match if following command is executed?
egrep -n -e '[^b]a'
102 What regular expression will be written if we want to match any input line
where letter p or q or s exist?
SUJJECT CODE: 13/16 PGCET
33. A
1. L.in := T.type
2. T.type := integer
3. T.type := real
4. L1.in := L.in
addtype(id.entry, L.in)
5. addtype(id.entry, L.in)
B
1. L.in := T.type
2. T.type := integer
3. T.type := real
4. L1.in := L.in
5. addtype(id.entry, L.in)
C
1. T.type := L.in 2.
T.type := integer 3.
T.type := real 4.
L1.in := L.in
addtype(id.entry, L.in)
5. addtype(id.entry, L.in)
D
1. T.type := integer
2. T.type := real
3. L.in:=T.type
4. L1.in := L.in
addtype(id.entry, L.in)
5. addtype(id.entry, L.in)
A
I0:S' → ●S,$
S → ●CC, $
C → ●cC, c
C → ●d, d
B
I0:S' → ●S,$
S → ●CC, $
C → ●cC, c|d
C → ●d, c|d
C
I0:S' → ●S,$
S → ●CC, $
C → ●cC, C
C → ●d, d
D
I0:S' → ●S,$
S → ●CC, $
C → ●cC, C
C → ●d, C
A Quadruples B Indirect triples
C Triples D none of these
A
E→TR
R→addop
T{print(addop.lexeme)}R1 | Є
B
E→TR
R→addop T R1 | Є
C
E→TR
R→addop {print(addop.lexeme)} T
R1 | Є
D
E→TR
R→addop T R1
{print(addop.lexeme)} | Є
108
what is the initial set of items in case of LR(1) items for the following
augmented grammer ?
S' → S
S → CC
C → cC | d
109 Which type of three address code requires lesser space?
110 Out of the following, which translation scheme maps infix expression to
corresponding postfix expression?
SUJJECT CODE: 14/16 PGCET
34. A X.x B Z.z
C Y.y D A.a
A
value of local names must be
retained when activation ends
B
A called activation outlives the
caller
C both of these D none of these
A
S→ iEtSS'
S'→eS
E→b
B
S→ iEtS'
S'→eS|Є
E→b
C
S→ iEtSS'
S'→S|Є
E→b
D
S→ iEtSS'
S'→eS|Є
E→b
A grammar is not left recursive B
S→ Aa|b
A→cA'|adA'|Є
C
S→ Aa|b
A→bdA'|A'
A'→cA'|adA'|Є
D cannot remove left recursion
A
recognize all programming
language construct
B
most general nonbacktracking
shift reduce parsing
C superset of predictive parsers D all of these
A difficult to understand B
too much work to construct LR
parser by hand
C No drawback D
No tool available to generate
parser
117
114 What is the result if left recursion is removed from the grammar?
S→ Aa|b
A→Ac|Sd|Є
115
Why LR parser is attractive?
116 What is the drawback of LR parser?
111
For the semantic rule A.a:=f(X.x,Y.y,Z.z) is associated with the production
A→XYZ. Before XYZ is reduced to A,which aƩribute will be on the top of the
stack?
112 In which case stack allocation strategy cannot be used?
113 What is the result if left factoring is done on the grammar? S →
iEtS | iEtSeS |a
E→b
What is the three address code for the statement if
x<y goto lbl
SUJJECT CODE: 15/16 PGCET
35. A lbl LT x y B lbl x y LT
C LT x y lbl D none of these
A common subexpression B dead code elimination
C copy propagation D Loop optimization
A common subexpression B code motion
C copy propagation D Loop optimization
A while(limit-2>=i) B while (i>limit-2)
C
t=limit-2
while(i<=t)
D for(i=0;i<=limit-2;i++)
118 f:=g is related to which issue of the code optimization in compiler?
119 Which method decreses the amount of code in a loop?
120 What is the code motion equivalent of the statement while (i<=limit-2)
SUJJECT CODE: 16/16 PGCET
36. A counter,registers and variables B counter,interrupt,functions
C functions,stack,program counter D local and global variables
A create B fork
C system D process
A interrupt array B interrupt routine
C interrupt address D interrupt vector
A deadlock B mutual exclusion
C mutual awareness D mutual denial
A shared heap B shared region
C crtitical section D not accessible data
A Turnaround B response time
C throughput D all of these
A preemptive scheduling B process starvation
C premature leaving D process observation
A too many process switches B too few process switches
C increases CPU efficiency D too many sleeps
A assembly program B thread
C executable program D processs
1 process is an executing program, including the current values of the ____,
_________ and ___________.
2 In UNIX process is created by which system call?
5 The part of the program, where the shared memory is accessed is called
_____________
6 Which criteria constitutes a good scheduling policy?
3 Which data structure contains the address of interrupt service procedure?
4 What term is used to indicate that if one process is using shared variable or file ,
the other processes will be excluded from doing the same thing.
9 A ___________ can be thought of as a program in execution.
7 Allowing processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily suspended that
type of scheduling is called _____________
8
In round robin scheduling , what is the effect of setting the two short quantum?
SUJJECT CODE: 1/13 PGCET
37. A tasks,threads B processes,threads
C jobs,user programs D jobs,tasks
A stack B program counter
C data section D heap
A array B heap
C vector D stack
A running,ready,waiting B running,terminated,waiting
C waiting,running,ready D ready,waiting,running
A accumulators B index registers
C stack pointers D all of these
A
memory management
information
B cPU registers
C process state D accounting information
A CPU and real time used B process priority
C page tables D list of I/O devices
A vector B linked list
C tree D array
12 What does a process include that is memory that is dynamically allocated during
processes run time?
13 Only one process can be ______ on any processor at any instant. Many
processes may be ______ and ___________.
10 A batch system executes _____, wheareas a time-shared system has
____________.
11
A process includes the ________, which contains temporary data(such as
function parameters,return addresses and local variables)
16 What is included as part of accounting information in case of process control
block?
17 What data structure is used to store all processes?
14
The CPU registers in a process control block include which of the following?
15 Page tables and segment tables are part of which piece of information in process
control block?
18 What does a ready queue header contain?
SUJJECT CODE: 2/13 PGCET
38. A
pointer to first process control
block
B
pointer to final process control
block
C
pointer to first and final process
control block
D do not contain any thing
A process B particular I/O device
C CPU D thread
A process scheduler B short term scheduler
C CPU and real time scheduler D long term scheduler
A process scheduler B short term scheduler
C CPU and real time scheduler D long term scheduler
A slow B inefficient
C fast D improper
A interrupt processes B I/O bound processes
C CPU bound processes D memory bound processes
A
all processses are interrupt
processes
B
all processses are I/O bound
processes
C
all processses are CPU bound
processes
D
all processses are memory bound
processes
A real time system B batch system
C time sharing system D single process system
A context switch B process switch
C memory switch D task switch
20 What type of scheduler is needed for batch system?
21
What type of scheduler is needed for processes that are ready to execute?
19 The list of processes in a device queue is waiting for a _______
24 In which case short term scheduler has little work to do?
25 Which type of systems do not have long term scheduler?
22 short time scheduler is _________
23 _________ uses more of its time doing computations.
26 The task of performing the state save of currrent process and state restore of a
different process is called __________
27 context switch time is overhead for the operating system because _____
SUJJECT CODE: 3/13 PGCET
39. A system goes in wait mode B system does useful work
C
system creates many new
processes
D system does no useful work
A ps B execute
C process D ls
A root B parent
C init D login
A process pointer B process tag
C process identifier D process table
A cooperating B CPU sharing
C memory sharing D I/O sharing
A shared memory,vactor passing B shared memory,message passing
C
segmented memory,message
passing
D page memory,message passing
A page memory B shared memory
C message passing D segmented memory
A intermediate amount of data B larger amounts of data
C D smaller amounts of data
A
sending process is blocked until
the message is received by
receiving process
B
sending process is blocked until
the message is not received by
receiving process
28 On UNIX, listing of processing can be obtained using which command?
29 Which process in UNIX, serves as a root parent process for all processes?
32 Which two models can be used for interprocess communication?
33 Which concept is easier to implement for intercomputer communication?
30 each process in UNIX is identified by __________
31 A process is _____ if it can affect or be affected by the other processes executing
in the system.
34 message passing is useful for _______
35 In which case send() call of message passing is considered blocking send?
SUJJECT CODE: 4/13 PGCET
40. C
sending process is blocked until
the communication is established
D
sending process is blocked until
the shared memory is defined
A shmget() B shmat()
C shmctl() D shmcreate()
A undefined B many
C one D none
A sockets B remote procedure calls
C Java's remote method invocation D all of these
A
allows a state of an object to be
written to an array
B
allows a state of an object to be
written to a vector
C
allows a state of an object to be
written to a byte stream
D
allows a state of an object to be
written to a file
A
time consuming and resource
intensive
B
time consuming and resource
starvation
C time sharing and deadlock D
time consuming and memory
starvation
A kernel threads B user threads
C message threads D memory threads
A
entire process will block if a
thread makes a computation
B
entire process will block if a
thread makes a blocking system
call
C
entire process will block if a
thread makes an exit
D no problem
36
shared memory segment can be removed with the help of which system call?
37 A system has one network address and it has ____ port
40 Which two problems are faced by process creation method?
41 Which types of threads are managed directly by the operating system?
38 Communication in client server system may use
39 Java provides an interface java.io.serializable. What is the use of object
serialization?
42 What is the problem if relationship between user level and kernel level threads
is many to one?
SUJJECT CODE: 5/13 PGCET
41. A overhead of data B overhead of creating user threads
C
overhead of starting Operating
system
D
overhead of creating kernel
threads
A increased responsiveness to user B
resource sharing within the
process
C economy D all of these
A tunaround time B throughput time
C average time D wait time
A
time during which a process
executes
B
time during which a process does
I/O
C spends waiting in the ready queue D all of these
A real time system B interactive
C time sharing D batch system
A cycles of CPU execution B cycle of I/O wait
C both A and B D none of these
A minimize B maximize
C average D none of these
A process control block B process table
C process identifier D free memory block
44 The benefits of multithreading include
45 The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion
is the ____ time.
43 What is the problem if relationship between user level and kernel level threads
is one to one?
48 Process execution consists of ___________
49
To guarantee that all users get good service, _____ the maximum response time.
46 The criteria of waiting time in CPU scheduling includes
47 In which type of system turnaround time may not be best criteria for CPU
scheduling?
50
When a process enters the ready queue, what is linked onto the tail of queue?
51 What type of scheduling is first come first served?
SUJJECT CODE: 6/13 PGCET
42. A preemptive scheduling B nonpreemptive scheduling
C maximum output sceduling D minimum wait scheduling
A real time system B interactive
C time sharing D batch system
A short term CPU scheduling B long term CPU scheduling
C both of these D none of these
A preemptive scheduling B nonpreemptive scheduling
C both of these D none of these
A unavailable I/O B unavailable memory
C unavailable CPU D starvation
A
time limits,memory
requirements,the number of open
files, the average of I/O burst to
average CPU burst
B
time limits,memory requirements,
the average of I/O burst to
average CPU burst
C
time limits,memory
requirements,the previous
priority, the average of I/O burst
to average CPU burst
D
time limits,memory
requirements,the number of
processes in ready queue, the
average of I/O burst to average
CPU burst
A 10 to 20 milliseconds B 10 to 100 milliseconds
C 1 to 10 milliseconds D 10 to 50 milliseconds
A n-1 B q
C (n-1)xq D nxq
52
first come first served scheduling algorithm is troublesome for ____ systems
53 shortest job first scheduling algorithm cannot be implemented at the level of
______
56 What criteria can be used to define priority in priority scheduling?
57 What is the time quantum in case of round robin scheduling?
54 shortest job first scheduling algorithm is
55 What is a major problem with priority scheduling?
58 In round robin scheduling , if there are n processes in the ready queue and time
quantum is q What is the maximum waiting time for a process until its next time
quantum?
SUJJECT CODE: 7/13 PGCET
43. A nonpreemptive B preemptive
C both of these D none of these
A multiuser B interactive
C batch D real time
A counting B infinite
C binary D none of these
A
resources a process will request
and use during lifetime
B memory usage pattern
C resources a process will request D cannot avoid deadlock
A read only files B printer
C both of these D none of these
A 1,2 B 2,3
C 1,2,3,4 D 1,2,4
A 300040 120900 B 300000 120940
C 300041 110999 D 300940 120000
A compile B run
C execution D all of these
65
If program can logically access all addresses from 300040 through
420940(inclusive) then what value is hold by base register and limit register?
66 If the processs can be moved during its execution from one memory segment to
another , binding must be delayed until ____ time.
67 What is the role of memory management unit?
62 Deadlock avoidance require which information in advance?
63 Which of the following resource cannot be simultaneously shared by several
processes?
64
A deadlock can occur if which of the following conditions hold simultaneously?
1. mutual exclusion 2. hold and wait 3. nopreemption 4. circular wait
59 Which type of kernel is free from race conditions?
60 preemptive kernel is suitable for which kind of process?
61 Which type of semaphores are known as mutex locks?
SUJJECT CODE: 8/13 PGCET
44. A
run time maaping from virtual to
physical adddresses
B
load time maaping from virtual to
physical adddresses
C
compile time maaping from
virtual to physical adddresses
D all of these
A
resident operating sytem,user
processes
B
resident operating sytem,kernel
processes
C resident operating sytem,loader D resident operating sytem,compiler
A allocate the first hole big enough B allocate smallest hole
C allocate contiguous blocks D allocate largest hole
A external fragmentation B internal fragmentation
C both of these D none of these
A external fragmentation B internal fragmentation
C both of these D none of these
A external fragmentation B internal fragmentation
C paging D none of these
A internal,entire B external, last
C internal,0 D external,0
A 4300 B 4353
C 4302 D 4355
74 In memory allocation, segment 2 is 400 bytes long and begins at location 4300.
Reference to byte 53 of segment 2 is mapped onto location ____
75 In which situation Direct access files are of great use?
71 There is a memory allocation scheme with a hole of 18464 bytes. If a processes
requests 18462 bytes. Then 2 bytes are left with a hole if exact requested block
is allocated. This is called ___________
72 _____________ is a memory management scheme that permits the physiacl
address of a process to be noncontiguous.
73 If a process needs npages plus 1 byte. It would be allocated n+1 frames,
resulting in an _____ fragmentation of _____ frame.
68 The memory is divided into which two partitions?
69
What is worst fit strategy to select a free hole from the set of available holes in
case of dynamic storage allocation problem?
70 first fit and best fit strategies of memory allocation suffer from ____
SUJJECT CODE: 9/13 PGCET
45. A
For indirect access to small
amount of information
B
For immediate access to indirect
information
C
For immediate access to small
amounts of information
D
For immediate access to large
amounts of information
A
implement identity dependent
access
B implement group identity
C implement role dependent access D implement file list
A grep B egrep
C nice D cal
A
indefinite blockage of low priority
process in priority scheduling
B
nonpreemptive scheduling in First
come first served scheduling
C
preemptive scheduling in shortest
job first
D
nonpreemptive scheduling in
shortest job first
A 1 and 3 B 1 and 2
C 2 and 3 D 1,2 and 3
A 1 and 3 B 1 and 3
C 1 and 2 D 1,2 and 3
A
The target thread allows itself an
opportunity to terminate init
process
B
The target thread allows itself an
opportunity to terminate itself in
an orderly fashion
76 For what purpose access control list is used in operating system?
78 aging is the solution to which problem?
79 When a process creates a new process which two possibilities exist in terms of
execution? 1.
parent continues to execute concurrently with children 2.
The parent waits until some or all of its children have terminated. 3. The
parent exits so children gets memory for execution
77 Which command can be used in Linux to set priority in priority based
scheduling?
80 When a new process is created, which are the two possibilities in terms of the
address space?
1. The child process is a duplicate of the parent process
2. The child process has a new program loaded into it.
3. The parent,child process are shifted to new memory area.
81 What is deferred cancellation in case of cancellation of a target thread?
SUJJECT CODE: 10/13 PGCET
46. C
The target thread allows itself an
opportunity to terminate memory
operations
D
The target thread allows itself an
opportunity to terminate I/O
operations
A random number greater than 0 B 1
C 1356 D 0
A physical and virtual memory B open files
C I/O buffers D all of these
A 1,2,3 B 1,2
C 2,3 D 1,3
A assembler B loader
C object module D none of these
A
a new shared memory segment is
created.
B
a new shared memory segment is
created with read permission.
C
a new shared memory segment is
created with write permission
D
a new shared memory segment is
created in private memory are.
A shared memory is detached B
user selects the location where
the shared memory will be
attached
87 What is the meaning of NULL in the system call shmat(id,NULL,0)?
84
In which case parerent may terminate the execution of one of its children?
1. The child has exceeded its usage of some of the resources that it has been
allocated. 2.
The task assigned to the child is no longer required. 3. The
parent is exiting and the operating system does not allow a child to continue if
its parent terminates.
85
The assembler generates object modules for loader who is a consumer in this?
86 What does IPC_PRIVATE in case of system call
shmget(IPC_PRIVATE,size,S_IRUSR|S_IWUSR)
83 Which resources are deallocated by operating system when a process
terminates?
82 When fork() is used to create a child process, what is the pid for the child
process?
SUJJECT CODE: 11/13 PGCET
47. C
operating system selects the
location where the shared
memory will be attached
D
process selects the location where
the shared memory will be
attached
A
servicing a request with an
existing thread is usually faster
than writing to create thread.
B
A thread pool limits the number of
threads that exist at any one
point.
C A and B D none of these
A
When a process switches from
running to waiting state
B
When a process switches from
running to ready state
C
When a process switches from
waiting to ready state
D all of these
A 24 milliseconds B 27 milliseconds
C 10 milliseconds D 17 milliseconds
A 6 milliseconds B 7 milliseconds
C 5 milliseconds D 4 milliseconds
A 6.5 milliseconds B 7 milliseconds
C 6 milliseconds D 4 milliseconds
A 6.5 milliseconds B 7 milliseconds
C 7.75 milliseconds D 6 milliseconds
93 The four processes A,B,C,D has burst time 8,4,9,5 and arrival time 0,1,2,3. burst
time and arrival time in milliseconds. The average waiting time in case of
nopreemptive shortest job first scheduling algorithm is ____
94 The five processes A,B,C,D,E has burst time 10,1,2,1,5 and priority 3,1,4,5,2
respectively. burst time in milliseconds. The average waiting time in case of
priority scheduling algorithm is ____
90 In First come First serve scheduling policy, the burst time for processes A,B,C is
24,3,3. burst time in milliseconds. If the processes arrive in orser B,C,A - the
average waiting time
91 The four processes A,B,C,D has burst time 6,8,7,3. burst time in milliseconds. The
average waiting time in case of simple shortest job first scheduling algorithm is
____
92
The four processes A,B,C,D has burst time 8,4,9,5 and arrival time 0,1,2,3. burst
time and arrival time in milliseconds. The average waiting time in case of
preemptive shortest job first scheduling algorithm is ____
88 Thread pools offer which benefit?
89 What is the reason for CPU scheduling decisions?
SUJJECT CODE: 12/13 PGCET
48. A 6.9 milliseconds B 8.2 milliseconds
C 7.75 milliseconds D 6.3 milliseconds
A 10 milliseconds B 7.4 milliseconds
C 6.2 milliseconds D 5.66 milliseconds
A First come first served B shortest job first
C priority D none of the above
A
design a protocol that the process
can use to cooperate
B
design a protocol that the process
can use to access kernel thread
C
design a protocol that the process
can use to access shared memory
D
design a protocol that the process
can use to access CPU
A 30 hours B 32 hours
C 28 hours D 24 hours
A 10% B 9%
C 0.10% D 0%
A in = out B ((in+1)%BUFFER_SIZE)=out
C buffer cannot be full D in + 1 =out
100
The shared buffer is implemented in a circular array with two logical pointer in
and out. The variable in points to the next free position in the buffer; out points
to the first full position in the buffer. In which situation buffer is full?
98 In priority scheduling, if priorities range from 127(low) to 0(high) anf if priority of
waiting process is increased by 1 every 15 minutes, then how many hours will be
taken for a priority 127 to reach to priority 0.
97 What is a critical section problem?
99 If short term scheduler takes 10 milliseconds to decide to execute a process for
100 milliseconds then _____ percent of the CPU is being used for scheduling the
work.
96 If time quantum is too large, round robin scheduling degenerates to which
scheduling policy?
95
If three processes A,B,C arrive at time 0 and length of the CPU burst in
milliseconds is 24,3,3 respectively and if the time quantum is of 4 milliseconds
then average waiting time in round robin scheduling is _____.
SUJJECT CODE: 13/13 PGCET
49. 7 Regular Grammar is subset of
A Context Free Grammar B Context Sensitive Grammar
C Unrestricted Grammar D All of these
1
A Relation R is called Equivalence Relation if R is
A Reflexive B Symmetric
C Transitive D All of these
2 A function is called “onto” or “surjective”
A If domain and co-
domain are same
B If the range and co-
domain are same
C If the range and
domain are same
D None of these
3 For Language L following is not true
A L+
= L*L B L+
= L L*
C L+
= L*L* D All are true
4 In which machine all of the moves for an alphabet must be
specified?
A Finite Automata B NFA
C NFA – Λ D All of these
5 Turing Machine is more powerful than Finite Automata because
A It has no finite state
control
B It has the capabilities to
remember arbitrary long
sequence of input symbols
C Tape movement is
confined to one
direction only
D None of these
6 Push Down Automata uses
A Tape B Queue
C Stack D Tree
50. 8 (00 + 01 + 10)(0+1)* represents
A Strings of even length B Strings of Odd length
C Strings not starting with
11
D None of these
9 (00 + 01 + 10 + 11)* represents
A Strings of even length B Strings of Odd length
C Strings starting with 00 D None of these
10 The regular expression 0*1(0*10*1)* represents strings with
A Even no. of 1’s B Odd no. of 1’s
C Odd no. of zeroes D None of these
11 Finite Automata can not have
A Accepting State B Starting State
C Transition Function D More than one transitions for
same input from a state
12 A BC Rule is not allowed in
A Context Free Grammar B Context Sensitive Grammar
C Regular Grammar D CNF
13 Starting Symbol of a Grammar is subset of
A Terminal Symbols B Non Terminal Symbols
C Alphabet D Language
14 Following is not a primitive operation of a Regular Language
A L1 ∩ L2 B L1 ∪ L2
C L1.L2 D L1*
15 The Regular expression for strings of 0's and 1's which have no pairs of
consecutive 0's is
A (1 + 01)* (0 + Λ) B (0 +10) *
C (0 +11) * D None of these
16 The set of strings over {a, b}* that contain the substring aa is.
A a(a*ba*b)*a* B (a)*(b+a)(b)
C (aa + bb)* D (a + b)*aa (a + b)*
51. 17 The regular expression (a + b)* abb denotes:
A all possible
combinations of a’s and
b’s
B set of all strings ending with abb
C set of all strings starting
with and ending with
abb
D None of these
18 Given two DFA’s M1 and M2” They are equivalent if:
A M1 and M2 has the same
number of states
B M1 and M2 has the sane number
of final states.
C M1 and M2 accepts the
same language i.e.
L(M1)= L(M2)
D None of these
19 Given a finite automata M =(Q, Σ, δ, qo’ F), If δ maps Q x Σ to 2Q
then:
A M is NFA B M is DFA
C M is NFA with ε-moves D None of these
20 Which of the following phase of compilation process is an optional
phase :
A Lexical analysis phase B Syntax analysis phase
C Code generation phase. D Code optimization phase
21 Which of the following statement is negation of the statement?
A 2 is even and -3 is not
negative
B 2 is odd or -3 is not negative
C 2 is odd and -3 is not
negative
D 2 is even or -3 is not negative
22 Which of the following are the aspects of the high level languages?
A Ease of understanding B Naturalness
C portability D All of Above
23 In a Finite State Machine, M = (Q,∑,δ,q0, A) transition function δ is a
function which maps
A Q ∑ X Q B Q X ∑ Q
C Q A D Q X q0 ∑
24 In an NFA, M = (Q,∑,δ,q0, A) transition function δ is a function which
maps
A Q X ∑ Q B Q X ∑ Q2
C Q X ∑ 2Q
D Q X ∑* Q
52. 25 By Kleens theorem we prove that
A Any language is
accepted by FA
B Any Regular Language is
accepted by FA
C Any CFG is accepted
by FA
D None of these
26 For two FAs M1 = (Q1,∑,δ1,q1, A1) M = M2 = (Q2,∑,δ2,q2, A2) accepting
languages L1 and L2 If we find L1 ∪ L2 then
A Only A1 is accepting
State
B Only A2 is accepting State
C We must add new
accepting States
D Both A1 and A2 are accepting
State
27 For two FAs M1 = (Q1,∑,δ1,q1, A1) M = M2 = (Q2,∑,δ2,q2, A2) accepting
languages L1 and L2 If we find L1. L2 then
A Only A1 is accepting
State
B Only A2 is accepting State
C We must add new
accepting States
D Both A1 and A2 are accepting
State
28 For two FAs M1 = (Q1,∑,δ1,q1, A1) M = M2 = (Q2,∑,δ2,q2, A2) accepting
languages L1 and L2 If we find L1.L2 then
A q1 is starting State B q2 is starting State
C We must add new
starting State
D None of these
29 If f(x) = cos(x) and g(x) = x3
, then (f O g)(x) is
A (cos(x))3
B cos (3x)
C x3(cosx)
D Cos(x3
)
30 P q is logically equivalent to (here ~ is Negation Sign)
A ~q p B ~p q
C ~p Λ q D ~p Ѵ q
31 Let the classes of Languages accepted by finite state machines be L1
and the class of Languages represented by regular expressions be L2
then,
A L1 is subset of L2 B L2 is subset of L1
C L1 = L2 D L1 ∩ L2 = ф
32 Tautology is
A Always True B Always False
C Partially True D None of these
33 δ* of Finite Automata is
53. A Transition Function B Extended Transition Function
C Non Recursive Function D None of these
34 Following is an Ambiguous Grammar
A S S + S | S * S | a B S aSa | Λ
C S aS | Λ D None of these
35 CFG stands for
A Compile Free Grammar B Content Free Grammar
C Context Free Grammar D None of these
36 In a Push Down Automata, Which of the following Stack operations can
not be performed on a particular move?
A PUSH B PEEP
C POP D None of these
37 Recursive Languages are recognizable by
A FA B NFA
C NFA - ᴧ D Turing Machine
38 Minimum length of the string formed by Regular Expression
(a+b)* abac*(a+b)+
A 3 B 6
C 4 D 8
39 (a+b)* represents
A Null String B All Strings of a’s and b’s
C String starting with a D None of these
40 If the language L is Recursive language then L is finite or infinite is
A Decidable B Un-decidable
C Still an open question D None of these
41 Turing Machine can’t solve Halting Problem is
A True B False
C Still an open question D None of these
42 If P = NP then
A P and NPC are different B NP and NPC are different
C P,NP and NPC are same D None of these
54. 43 The Coloring Problem is
A NP Hard Problem B NP Complete Problem
C P Problem D None of these
44 Conversion from NFA to DFA is done by
A Subset construction B Kleen’s Theorem
C Minimization
Algorithm
D Cook’s Theorem
45 Pumping Lemma is used to decide whether Language L is
A Context Sensitive B Context Free
C Recursive D Not a Regular
46 Which of the following is true?
A (a+b)* = (a+b)(a+b)* B (a+b)* = a*b*
C (a+b)* = (a*b*)* D None of these
47 (1+0)*0 represents
A Binary number that are
multiples of 2(two).
B String starting with 1
C String starting with 0 D None of these
48 CFG : S SS+ | SS* | a , generates
A Prefix Expression B Postfix Expression
C Infix Expression D None of these
49 CFG: S aSb | Λ , generates language
A (ab)n
B ab(a+b)*
C (a+b)*(ab)n
D an
bn
50 The Regular Sets are closed under
A Union B Concatenation
C Kleen’s Closure D All of Above
51 The output of a moore machine is
A Depend on present state
and present input
B Depend only on the present state
C Depend only on present
input
D All of these
55. 52 In a Context Sensitive Grammar, no. of Grammar symbols on the left
side of a Production can’t be greater than the no. of
A Grammar Symbols on
right side
B Terminals on the right side
C Non Terminals on right
side
D All of these
53 A given grammar is called ambiguous if
A 2 or more productions
have same non terminal
on the left hand side
B A derivation tree has more than
on associated sentence
C Brackets are not present
in the grammar
D There is a sentence with more
than one derivation tree.
54 Let L be a language recognizable by a Finite Automata, then reverse of
the language is a
A Regular Language B Context Free Language
C Context Sensitive
Language
D Recursively Enumerable
Language
55 The logic of Pumping Lemma is a good example of
A Pigeon – Hole principle B Divide & Conquer Technique
C Recursion D Iteration
56 The no. of Auxiliary memory required for a Push Down Automata to
behave as a Finite Automata is
A 2 B 1
C 0 D 4
57 A Push Down Automata behaves like a Turing Machine when no. of
Auxiliary memory it has is
A 2 B 1
C 0 D 4
58 Context Free Grammar is not closed under
A Concatenation B Union
C Complementation D Kleens
59 For two regular languages
L1 = (a+b)*b and L2 = b(a+b)*, then L1 ∩ L2 is given by
A (a+b)*ab B ab(a+b)*
C a(a+b)*b D b(a+b)*a
60 If L is a language recognizable by a Finite Automata then subset of the
Language is
A Regular Language B Context Free Language
56. C Context Sensitive
Language
D Recursively Enumerable
Language
61 Which of the following is not accepted by any deterministic Push Down
Automata?
A String ending in
particular alphabet
B Strings in which a given symbol
is present atleast twice
C Even palindromes D None of these
62 If S be an infinite set and S1 ∪ ܵ2 … ∪ ܵ݊ = S, then
A Atleast one of the set Si
is a finite set
B Atleast one of the sets Si is an
infinite set
C Not more than on of the
set Si can be finite
D None of these
63 A Grammar that produces more than one Parse tree for same sentence is
A Ambiguous B Unambiguous
C Regular D None of these
64 Which of the following Regular Expressions denotes a language
comprising all possible strings over the alphabet (a,b)
A a*b* B (a+b)*
C (ab)+
D (a+b*)
65 An Finite Automata can be considered to be a Turing Machine of finite
length
A Rewinding capability
and unidirectional tape
movement
B Without rewinding capability
and unidirectional tape
movement
C Rewinding capability
and bidirectional tape
movement
D Without rewinding capability
and bidirectional tape movement
66 Palindromes can’t be recognized by any Finite Automata because
A FA can’t
deterministically fix the
mid-point
B FA can’t remember arbitrary
large amount of information
C Both A and B D None of these
67 If ∑ = (a,b,c,d,e,f), then no. of string in ∑ of length 4 such that no
symbol is used more than once in a string is
A 60 B 360
C 240 D 720
68 If L = x*(x + yx), then which of the following is not a legal string
within L?
A yx B xyx
57. C x D xyxyx
69 If every string of a language can be determined, whether it is legal or
illegal in finite time, the language is called
A Decidable B Undecidable
C Interpretive D Non-determinstic
70 Can a DFA simulate NFA?
A No B Yes
C Sometimes D Depends on NFA
71 Regular Expression (a+b) denotes the set
A {a} B {є, a,b}
C {a,b} D {ab}
72 Regular Expression (a+b)(a+b) denotes the set
A {a,b,ab,aa} B {a,b,ba,bb}
C {a,b} D {aa,ab,ba,bb}
73 Which of the following regular expression denotes zero or more
instances of a or b?
A a + b B (ab)*
C (a+b)* D a* +b
74 The automata is a ____ device and a grammar is a _____ device
A generative,cognitive B generative,acceptor
C acceptor,cognitive D cognitive, generative
75 The Regular sets are closed under
A Union B Concatenation
C Kleens’ Closure D All of these
76 To accept strings with N characters the Finite Automata contains
minimum
A N states B N + 1 States
C N + 2 States D N - 1 States
77 Number of Articulation Points in a Rectangle is
A 0 B 1
C 2 D 4
78 For a simple connected graph G with n vertices and n edges(n>2), which
of the following statement are true?
A G has no cycles B G is a Spanning Tree
58. C G has atleast one cycle D None of these
79 Finite State Machine can recognize
A Any Grammar B Only Context Free Grammar
C Any Unambiguous
Grammar
D Only Regular Grammar
80 S aSa | bSb | Λ recognizes
A Even Palindrome in
(a,b)*
B Odd Palindrome (a,b)*
C Any Palindrome in
(a,b)*
D None of these
81 Match all items in Group 1 with correct options from those given in
Group 2.
Group 1 Group 2
P. Regular expression 1. Syntax analysis
Q. Pushdown automata 2. Code generation
R. Dataflow analysis 3. Lexical analysis
S. Register allocation 4. Code optimization
A P-4. Q-1, R-2, S-3 B P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
C P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 D P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
82 Find a regular expression for strings of 0's and 1's which have no pairs
of consecutive 0's.
A (1 + 01)* (0 + Λ ) B (0 +10) *
C (11 +010) * D None of these
83 Which phase detects and ignores the comments?
A Lexical B Syntax
C Semantic D Code Generator
84 The set of strings over {a, b} that contain the substring aa.
A (ab)*a B (a + b)*aa (a + b)*
C a*(a+b)* D None of these
85 The Left Linear Grammar is
A Regular Grammar B CNF
C Not a Regular Grammar D None of these
86 Modification of Simple Turing Machine(TM) can be done by
59. A Multi-Tape TM B Multi-Head TM
C Universal TM D All of these
87 Regular Grammar is
A Type – 0 B Type – 1
C Type – 2 D Type – 3
88 “Dangling else” is a phenomenon related to
A Regular Grammar B Unambiguous Grammar
C Ambiguous Grammar D None of these
89 For minimization of Finite Automata we find
A Equivalent States B Unreachable State
C Finite States D None of these
90 Any Regular Expression is easily converted to
A FA B NFA
C NFA - Λ D None of these
91 Λ - closure (Null Closure) of a state in NFA - Λ contains
A The state itself B All states obtained from Λ -
transitions from the state
C Both A and B D None of these
92 (11+101)(1+0)* represents
A String starting with 11
and 101
B String starting either with 11 or
101
C Strings always starting
with 11
D None of These
93 f:R+
R, f(x) = x2
function is
A Both onto and one-to-
one
B Not onto but one-to-one
C onto but not one-to-one D Neither onto nor one-to-one
94 f:R+
R+
, f(x) = x2
function is
A Both onto and one-to-
one
B Not onto but one-to-one
C onto but not one-to-one D Neither onto nor one-to-one
60. 95 If NFA contains n states then by subset construction the equivalent DFA
contains maximum of
A n2
states B 2n states
C n3
states D 2n
states
96 Recursively Enumerable Grammar falls in
A Type – 0 B Type – 1
C Type – 2 D Type – 3
97 For simplification of CFG following can be done
A Eliminate Null
Production
B Eliminate not reachable
Variables
C Eliminate Unit
Production
D All of these
98 In case of Turing Machine(TM) by reading input x, TM
A May go to infinite loop B May go to halt-non final state
C May go to halt-final
state
D All of these
99 Recursively Enumerable Languages are
A A proper subset of
CFLs
B Always recognizable by PDA.
C Also called type-0
languages
D All of these
100 Any language generated by a Unrestricted Grammar is
A Regular Language B Recursively Enumerable
Language
C Context Free Language D None of these
101 Which of the following properties of Recursively Enumerable sets are
decidable?
A Emptiness B Finiteness
C Regularity D None of these
102 Finite State Machine can recognize
A Only Context Free
Grammar
B Only Regular Grammar
C Any unambiguous
Grammar
D Any Grammar
103 Which of the following problem is not NP-Hard?
A Travelling Salesman
Problem
B 0/1 Knapsack Problem
61. C Graph Coloring D None of these
104 In a Grammar : S aSa | bSb | Λ
For recognizingstring “abba” the number of productions used are
A 2 B 3
C 4 D 5
105 Finite Automata do not find application in
A Syntax Checking B Recognition of Tokens
C Checking string ending
with some alphabets
D None of these
106 “NFA can be simulated by a DFA.” The statement is
A True B False
C Depends on NFA D Depends on DFA
107 Universal Turing Machine influenced the concept of
A Stored program
computers
B Interpretive implementation of
programming language
C Computability D All of these
108 Following is not a proof method
A Contradiction B Contra-positive
C Recurrence D Principle of Mathematical
Induction
109 “Finite Automata is a particular case of NFA”. The statement is
A False B True
C Partially true D Depends upon NFA
110 In NFA, a particular state can have
A Zero Transition on an
alphabet
B One Transition on an alphabet
C More than One
Transition on an
alphabet
D All of above
111 (00+11+01+10)* represents
A Strings of odd length B Strings of even length
C Strings starting with 00 D Strings ending in 10
112 For the language (00)*(11)* drawing/designing ____ is easier.
A FA B NFA
62. C NFA - Λ D Universal TM
113 Which of the following is not true with respect to regular expression?
A (a+b)* = (b+a)* B (ab)* = a*b*
C (ab+ba)* = (ba+ab)* D (a+b)+
= (a+b)(a+b)*
114 Bottom Up Parsing have
A Shift operation B Reduce Operation
C Both A and B D None of these
115 With respect to Grammar, Following is the part of actual string of a
Language
A Variables B Start Symbol
C Non Terminal Symbol D Terminal Symbol
116 Grammar: S [S] | {S} | SS | Λ represents
A Strings with Λ symbols B Strings with Unbalanced
Brackets
C Strings with Balanced
Brackets
D Strings like {SSSS}…
117 L={xcxr
/ x Є (a,b)* } can be recognized by
A FA B NFA
C NFA - Λ D Push Down Automata
118 A function f is called bijection if f is
A onto B surjective
C Both onto and
surjective
D None of these
119 0(1+0)*0 represents all strings
A Starting with 0 B Ending in 0
C Contains substring 00 D Starting with and ending in 0
120 Total no. of substrings of the letter “TOC” (without considering NULL)
equal to
A 3 B 4
C 5 D 6
63. 7 An algorithm is made up of 2 modules Ml and M2. If order of M1 is f(n)
and M2 is g(n) then the order of the algorithm is
A max (f (n) ,g (n)) B min (f (n) ,g (n) )
C f (n) + g (n) D f (n) x g (n )
1
The depth of a complete binary tree is given by
A Dn = n log2n B Dn = n log2n+1
C Dn = log2n D Dn = log2n+1
2 Which of the following sorting algorithm is of divide-and-
conquer type?
A Bubble sort B Insertion sort
C Quick sort D All of above
3 The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is
measured by
A Counting microseconds B Counting the number of
key operations
C Counting the number
of statements
D Counting the kilobytes of
algorithm
4 The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm when
A Item is somewhere in
the middle of the array
B Item is not in the array at
all
C Item is the first element
in the array
D Item is the last element in
the array or is not there at
all
5 The Average case occur in linear search algorithm
A When Item is
somewhere in the
middle of the array
B When Item is not in the
array at all
C When Item is the last
element in the array
D When Item is the last
element in the array or is
not there at all
6 The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is
A O(n) B O(log n)
C O(n2
) D O(n log n)
64. 8 There are 4 different algorithms AI, A2, A3, A4 to ·solve a given
problem with the order Iog(n), log(log(n)), nIog(n) ,n / log(n)
respectively. Which is the best algorithm?
A A1 B A2
C A3 D A4
9 The time complexity of an algorithm T(n), where n is the input size, is
given by
T( n) = T( n - 1) + (1/n) if n > 1
The order of this algorithm is
A log n B n
C n2
D nn
10 The running time of an algorithm is given by
T(n) = T(n - 1) + T(n - 2) - T(n - 3), if n > 3
n, otherwise.
A n B log n
C nn
D n2
11 Which of the following algorithms solves the all-pair shortest path
problem?
A Dijkstra's algorithm B Floyd's algorithm
C Prim's algorithm D Warshall's algorithm
12 For merging two sorted lists of sizes m and n into a sorted list of size m
+ n, we require comparisons of
A O(m) B O(n)
C O(m + n) D O(log(m) + log(n))
13 Which of the following algorithm design technique is used in the quick
sort algorithm?
A Dynamic programming B Backtracking
C Divide and conquer D Greedy method
14 The correct matching for the following pairs is
(A) 0/1 Knapsack (1) Greedy
(B) Quick sort (2) Depth-first search
(C) Minimum weight (3) Dynamic programming
(D) Connected Components (4) Divide and conquer
65. A A-2 , B-4 , C-1, D-3 B A-3 , B-4 , C-l , D-2
C A-3 , B-4 , C-2 , D-1 D A-4 , B-1 , C-2 , D-3
15 In the worst case, the number of comparisons needed to search a single
linked list of length n for a given element is
A log(n) B n/2
C log(n/2)-1 D n
16 For the bubble sort algorithm, what is the time complexity of the
best/worst case?
(assume that the computation stops as soon as no more swaps in one
pass)
A best case: O(n) worst
case: O(n*n)
B best case: O(n) worst case:
O(n*log(n))
C best case: O(1) worst
case: O( n )
D best case: O(n*log(n)) worst
case: O(n*n)
17 When we say the order of a tree is M, we mean
A Every non-leaf node
must have M subtrees
B Every non-leaf node must have
M keys
C Every non-leaf node
can have at most M
subtrees
D The Height of the tree is M.
18 Worst case Time Complexity of Merge Sort is
A O(n2
) B O(n log(n) )
C O(2 log(n) ) D O(n2
log(n) )
19 The number of edges in a Minimum Spanning Tree of a connected
Graph G with n vertices is
A n log(n) B n!
C n*(n-1)/2 D n - 1
20 Time Complexity of Tower of Hanoi Problem (Recursive) with n disks
is
A n2
B 2n
C 3n
D n3
21 Total Degree of a Triangle is
A 6 B 4
C 3 D 2
22 Travelling Salesman Problem is
A NP Problem B P Problem
66. C Halting Problem D All of Above
22 For the Quick sort algorithm, what is the time complexity of the
best/worst case?
A best case: O(log(n))
worst case: O(n2
)
B best case: O(n2
)
worst case: O(n log(n))
C best case: O(n log(n) )
worst case: O(n2
)
D best case: O(n2
)
worst case: O(n2
log(n) )
23 A Bi-connected Graph Certainly does not contain any
A Cycle B Path
C Parallel Edges D Cut Vertex
24 N-Queens Problem can be solved easily by
A Dynamic Programming B Backtracking Method
C Greedy Method D Divide and Conquer Method.
25 Max Heap Tree has following Property.
A Right Child > Parent B Both Children > Parent
C Both Children < Parent D None of above
26 Heap Tree is
A Complete Binary Tree B Cyclic Graph
C 3-way Search Tree D Forest
27 Dynamic Programming Method is not suitable to solve
A 0/1 Knapsack Problem B Making Change Problem
C Binomial Co-efficient D Fractional Knapsack Problem
28 Krushkal’s Algorithm uses
A Greedy Method B Divide and Conquer Method.
C Dynamic Programming D Branch & Bound Method
29 NP Problem is
A Polynomial Problem B Non Deterministic Polynomial
Problem
C Easy to Solve problem D All of Above
30 For a same problem If Time Complexity of Recursive algorithm is x and
Time Complexity of Iterative algorithm is y, then
A x < y B x > y
67. C x = y D can not be said
31 for(i=1 ; i<=n ; i++) printf(“**”) ;
The above C code has Time Complexity of
A 1 B log(n)
C n log(n) D N
32 Binary Search Method has Worst Case Time Complexity of
A 2n B nlog(n)
C log(n) D n*n
33 The number of ways to multiply 4 Matrices in a Chained Matrix
Multiplication
A 2 B 3
C 4 D 5
34 Worst case Time Complexity of Linear Search is
A O(n) B O(log(n))
C O(1) D O(nlog(n))
35 Breadth First Search method uses
A Stack B Queue
C Hash Table D None of these
36 Minimum no. of states to Search/Recognize string “nano” with Finite
Automata is
A 2 B 3
C 4 D 5
37 Following is a NP Problem related to Graph
A To find Longest Path B To find Shortest Path
C To find Minimum
Spanning Tree
D To find a Cycle
38 The “Principle of Optimality” is used in
A Greedy Method B Backtracking
C Dynamic Programming D Branch & Bound
39 Worst case Time Complexity of Multiplication of two n X n Matrix is
A n2
B n2
log(n)
C n log(n) D n3
40 Worst case Time Complexity of Addition of two n X n Matrix is
A n2
B n2
log(n)
C n log(n) D n3
68. 41 The running time of the following sorting algorithm depends on whether
the partitioning is balanced or unbalanced
A Insertion sort B Selection Sort
C Quick Sort D Merge Sort
42 The average case complexity of Insertion Sort is
A O(2n
) B O(n2
)
C O(n3
) D O(2n)
43 The spanning tree of connected graph with 10 vertices contains
A 9 edges B 10 edges
C 11 edges D 11 vertices
44 Worst case Time Complexity of Heap Sort Algorithm is
A O(log(n))2
B O(n)
C O(n2
) D O(nlog(n))
45 In a heap tree bottom level should be filled
A From left to right. B From right to left.
C Completely. D None of these
46 The height of heap tree of N data is
A O(N) B O(N log(N))
C O(log(N) ) D O(2N)
47 A sorted array in ascending order is
A MAX Heap B MIN Heap
C Not a Heap Tree D None of these
48 Which of the following algorithm do not have a time complexity of
O(n2
)
A Bubble Sort B Shell Sort
C Radix Sort D Quick Sort
49 Consider the Array: 26, 35, 11, 49, 54, 30, 80.
How array will look like after 2 (two) iterations of Bubble Sort?
A 26, 11, 35, 49, 54, 30,
80
B 26, 11, 35, 49, 30, 54, 80
C 11, 26, 35, 30, 49, 54,
80
D None of these
69. 50 In a Selection Sort of n elements, how many times is the swap function
called in the complete execution of the algorithm?
A 1 B n-1
C n log(n) D n2
51 Which of the following sorts have a O(n log(n)) Worst case
performance?
A Insertion Sort B Quick Sort
C Heap Sort D None of these
52 An hash table with chaining as a collision resolution technique
degenerates to a
A Stack B Queue
C Linked List D Tree
53 Consider the following statements.
I. An algorithm is a no. of steps to be performed to solve a
problem.
II. To a given problem there may be more than one algoritm.
A Only I is correct B Only II is correct
C Both I and II are false D Both I and II are correct
54 Analyzing of an algorithm involves
A Evaluating the
complexity only
B Validating the algorithm Only
C Both Validating the
algorithm and
Evaluating the
Complexity
D None of these
55 The running time of an algorithm means
A No. of Primitive
Operations(Steps)
executed in a machine-
independent manner
B Time taken on a Standard
Computer to execute the
program
C Time taken by the
algorithm on a
particular input size.
D None of these
56 f(n) = θ (g(n) ) is
A g(n) is asymptotic upper
bound for f(n)
B g(n) is asymptotic tight bound
for f(n)
C g(n) is asymptotic lower
bound for f(n)
D None of these
70. 57 f(n) = (g(n) ) is
A g(n) is asymptotic upper
bound for f(n)
B g(n) is asymptotic tight bound
for f(n)
C g(n) is asymptotic lower
bound for f(n)
D None of these
58 f(n) = O (g(n) ) is
A g(n) is asymptotic upper
bound for f(n)
B g(n) is asymptotic tight bound
for f(n)
C g(n) is asymptotic lower
bound for f(n)
D None of these
59 f(n) = θ (g(n) ) implies
A f(n) = O (g(n) ) only B f(n) = (g(n) ) only
C f(n) = O (g(n) ) and
f(n) = (g(n) )
D None of these
60 T(n) = 2 T(n/2) + k.n , where k is constant, then T(n) is equal to
A O(n log(n)) B O( log(n) )
C O(n ) D O(n2
)
61 Time Complexity of Recursive Fibonacci algorithm is
A O(n2
) B O(n3
)
C O(n2
log(n) ) D O(Cn
), where C is a constant
62 Assume the input array is nearly sorted. Then performance of Quick sort
is
A Better than Average
case
B Worst than Average case
C Same as in Average
case
D None of these
63 At least how many comparisons are required for merging two sorted
lists of n elements each?
A 2n -1 B n-1
C 2n+1 D n
64 Which of the following data structure may be used to aid
implementation of radix sort?
A Stack B Heap
C Binary Search Tree D Queue
65 What is the preferred form of representation of Dense graph?
A Adjacency Matrix B Adjacency List
71. C Incidence Matrix D None of these
66 What is the running time of an efficient algorithm to find an Euler Tour
in a graph if one exists?
A O( |V| ) B O( |E| )
C O( |V| |E| ) D O( |V|2
)
67 Following Problem(s) is NP Complete
A Vertex Cover B SAT(Satisfiable)
C K-Colouring D All of these
68 Graphs are represented using
A Adjacency tree B Adjacency linked list
C Adjacency Graph D Adjacency Queue
69 Infinite recursion leads to
A Overflow of run-time
stack
B Underflow of registers usage
C Overflow of I/O cycles D Underflow of run-time stack
70 The running time for creating a heap of size n is
A O (n) B O (log n)
C O (n log n) D O (n2
)
71 Recursive procedures are implemented by using ____ data structure.
A Queues B Stacks
C Linked Lists D Strings
72 A technique for direct search is
A Binary Search B Linear Search
C Tree Search D Hashing
73 For an undirected graph with n vertices and e edges, the sum of the
degree of each vertex is equal to
A 2n B (2n-1)/2
C 2e D e2
/2
74 Which of the following sorting methods would be most suitable for
sorting a list which is almost sorted
A Bubble Sort B Selection Sort
C Quick Sort D Merge Sort
72. 75 A BST is traversed in the following order recursively: Right, root, left.
The output sequence will be in
A Ascending order B Descending order
C Bitomic sequence D No specific order
76 Quick sort is also known as
A merge sort B heap sort
C bubble sort D None of these
77 An algorithm is made up of two independent time complexities f (n)
and g (n). Then the complexities of the algorithm is in the order of
A f(n) x g(n) B Max ( f(n),g(n))
C Min (f(n),g(n)) D f(n) + g(n)
78 The goal of hashing is to produce a search that takes
A O(1) time B O(n2
) time
C O( log n ) time D O(n log n ) time
79 The time required to find shortest path in a graph with n vertices and e
edges is
A O(e) B O(n)
C O(e2
) D O(n2
)
80 Search tables used by compilers for efficient searching generally use
A Hash Tables B Linear lists of Records
C Binary Search Tables D Binary Search Trees
81 For merging two sorted lists of size m and n into a sorted size of m+n,
we require comparisons of
A O(m) B O(n)
C O(m+n) D O(log(m) + log(n ))
82 The running time T(n) is given as
T(n) = c + T(n-1) , if n >1
= d , if n<=1
The order of the algorithm is
73. A n2
B n
C n3
D nn
83 Which of the following shows the correct relationship?
A O(nlog(n) ) < O(n) B O(2n
) < O(n2
)
C O(n3
) < O(n2
log(n) ) D O(log(n) ) < O(n)
84 Breadth First Traversal (BFS) is a method to traverse
A Graph using shortest
path
B All successors of a visited node
before any successors of any of
those successors
C A single path of the
graph as far as it can go
D None of these
85 The way a card game player arranges his cards as he picks them up one
by one , is an example of
A Bubble Sort B Selection Sort
C Insertion Sort D Merge Sort
86 The concept of Order (Big O) is important because
A It can be used to decide
the best algorithm that
solves a given problem
B It determine the Maximum space
occupied by the algorithm
C It is the lower bound of
the growth rate of the
algorithm
D None of these
87 The common implementation of a heap is
A Array B Linked List
C Multilinked Structure D Doubly Linked List
88 The depth-first search
A Uses a queue B Uses a stack
C Searches a tree D Searches a linked list
89 For NP-Complete problem
A Several Polynomial
time algorithms are
available.
B Polynomial Time algorithms are
not exist, hence can not be
discovered
74. C No Polynomial Time
algorithm is discovered
yet
D None of Above
90 If P(n) = n2
then what is correct?
A P(n) = n3
B P(n) = n4
C P(n) = n2
D All of the above
91 An algorithm
A Is a finite set of
instructions
B Any well defined computational
procedure
C Zero or more quantities
are externally supplied
and at least one quantity
is produced.
D All are correct
92 Which of the following is type of amortized analysis?
A Aggregate Method B Accounting Method
C Potential Method D All of these
93 Divide and Conquer is a general design paradigm does not consist the
following part
A Divide B Recursion
C Iteration D Conquer
94 f(n) =n2
, g(n) = n3
,then which of the following is not correct?
A g(n) = (n) B g(n) = O(n2
)
C g(n) = O(n3
) D g(n) = (f(n))
95 In the division method for creating hash function, which of the
following hash table size is appropriate?
A 2 B 4
C 7 D 8
96 Greedy Algorithms have following characteristic.
A Objective function B Feasible solution
C Selection function D All of these
97 Divide and Conquer method is not suitable to solve Problem like
A Merge Sort B Finding Minimum Spanning
Tree
75. C Exponentiation D Binary Search
98 “Chained Matrix Multiplication” can be solved by
A Dynamic Programming B Greedy Method
C Branch & Bound D Backtracking
99 “Longest Common Subsequence” Problem can be solved by
A Greedy Method B Dynamic Progamming
C Backtracking D None of these
100 What is the minimum number of Stacks of size n required to implement
a Queue of size n?
A 1 B 2
C 3 D 4
101 Maximum number of edges in a n node graph is
A n(n-1)/2 B n2
C n2
log(n) D n+1
102 Level Ordered Traversal of a Rooted Tree can be done by starting from
the root and performing
A In-order traversal B Preorder traversal
C Breadth First Search D Depth First Search
103 Which of the following Pairs of traversals define Binary Tree uniquely?
A Pre-order and Post-
order
B In-order and Pre-order
C Level –order and Post-
order
D None of these
104 The Time Complexity of finding Transitive Closure of a Binary
Relation on a set of n elemtns is known to be
A O (n3
) B O (n)
C O (n2
log n) D O (n2
)
105 In a binary max heap containing n elements, the smallest element can be
found in
A θ (1 ) B θ (n )
C θ (log(n) ) D θ (nlog(n) )
106 Which of the following sorting algorithm has minimum worst case time
complexity?
76. A Selection Sort B Bubble Sort
C Quick Sort D Merge Sort
107 Which of the following is not a Graph Traversal technique?
A In-order Traversal B BFS
C DFS D None of These
108 Greedy algorithms have following characteristics
A Objective function B Feasible solution
C Selection Function D All of these
109 Divide & Conquer can’t solve Problems like
A Merge Sort B Exponentiation
C Minimum Spanning
Tree
D Binary Search
110 Chained Matrix Multiplication problem can be solved by
A Greedy Method B Dynamic Programming
C Backtracking D None of these
111 Longest Common Subsequence Problem can be solved by
A Greedy Method B Divide & Conquer
C Dynamic Programming D None of these
112 If there is an NP-Complete Language L whose Complement is in NP,
Then the Complement of any Language in NP is in
A P B NP
C Both A and B D None of these
113 Both P and NP are closed under the operation of
A Union B Intersection
C Concatenation D Kleene’s
114 Binary Search method uses as input
A Unsorted Array B Linear Linked List
C Sorted Array D Hash Table
115 Which of the method is used to solve Recurrences?