Page 1 of 41
Please Circle Only One Best Answer
1. Which of The following is true about ‘placebos’:
A. Placebo is a fake medication
B. Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for making tablets
C. Placebos do not produce any effect
D. All patients respond to placebos
2. What are autopsies useful for?
B. Gathering accurate statistics
C. Research into the causes and mechanisms of disease
D. Audit of accuracy of clinical diagnosis
3. The generic name is:
A. The original name assigned to the drug at the beginning of the evaluation
B. The name assigned to the drug by the pharmaceutical company developing it
C. The chemical name of the drug based on its chemical structure
D. Often used in advertising campaigns
4. Assessment of a client in the postanesthesia care unit or recovery room is documented:
A. Every 5 minutes
B. Every 15 minutes
C. Every 30 minutes
5. Which cranial nerve does not control functions in the head and neck?
6. Narcotic anesthesia used for conscious sedation have which of the following side effects:
C. Respiratory depression
D. All the above
7. How does palliative surgery differ from any other type of surgery?
A. The main purpose is cosmetic in nature rather than functional repair or comfort.
B. There are fewer risks associated with palliative surgery than with any other type
C. The outcomes of palliative surgery cannot be ensured to produce the desired
Page 2 of 41
effect or restoration of functional ability.
D. Palliative surgery is performed to provide temporary relief of distressing
symptoms rather than to cure a problem or condition.
Page 3 of 41
8. Who is responsible for accompanying the surgical client to the postanesthesia recovery
area after surgery and for giving a report of the client's intraoperative experience to the
A. The surgeon and scrub nurse
B. The surgeon and circulating nurse
C. The anesthesiologist and scrub nurse
D. The anesthesiologist and circulating nurse
9. Which of the following nursing actions should be given highest priority when admitting
the patient into the operating room?
A. Level of consciousness
B. Vital signs
C. Patient identification and correct operative consent
D. Positioning and skin preparation
10. If wound eviscerations occurs, the immediate nursing action is:
A. Cover the wound with sterile gauze moistened with sterile Normal saline
B. Cover the wound with water-soaked gauze
C. Cover the wound with sterile dry gauze
D. Leave the wound uncovered and pull the skin edges together
11. Which of the following drugs is administered to minimize respiratory secretions preop?
A. Valium (Diazepam)
B. Nubain ( Nalbuphine HCL)
C. Phenergan (Promethazine)
D. Atropine Sulfate
12. What is the first question you must ask before you respond to any first aid situation?
A. safety of the scene
B. ill person
C. time of the injury
D. nature of the injury
13. You notice that a person has experienced a significant amount of blood loss, has pale skin
color, and is becoming confused. What is most likely the cause?
C. Low blood sugar
14. Why is cleaning your hands between patients important?
A. Because I am student and I am doing the final evaluation
Page 4 of 41
B. Many studies have shown that the bacteria that cause nosocomial (hospital-
acquired) infections are most frequently spread from one patient to another on
the hands of healthcare workers.
C. So you are in compliance with minister of health regulations.
D. To assure that you appear professional when working with residents.
15. Which symptoms would indicate internal bleeding?
A. Rapid weak pulse, Excessive thirst.
B. Skin that feels cool or moist, or looks pale or bluish.
C. Tender, swollen, bruised, or hard areas of his body, such as the abdomen.
D. All of the above.
16. The nurse in charge identifies a patient's responses to actual or potential health problems
during which step of the nursing process?
17. If a patient has a high temperature in 72 hours after a surgery, what is the likely cause?
B. Increased drainage
C. Normal surgery response
18. A nurse roles in consent form is to:
B. Witness the voluntary signature
C. Advise the patient on the best choice to make
D. Next kin of patient
19. Which part of the clavicle articulates with the manubrium?
B. sternal end
C. acromial end
D. coracoid process
20. ALL BUT ONE of the following are early indicators of hypovolemia. Indicate the
B. Increase urine output
C. Decreased urine output
D. Increase blood pressure
21. The cervical region of the vertebral column consists of :
A. Seven vertebrae
B. 12 vertebrae
C. Five vertebrae
Page 5 of 41
D. A single bone derived from the fusion of five vertebrae
22. Which of the following substances is least able to cross the blood-brain barrier?
B. sodium ions
D. white blood cells
23. Which of the following statements about heart is correct?
A. The heart is medial to the lungs.
B. The heart is lateral to the lungs.
C. The heart is superior to the lungs.
D. The heart is inferior to the lungs.
24. Structures found within the right iliac region include:
25. Which of the following is primary source of energy for body cells?
26. Which is the correct ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for use in CPR of an
A. 2 compressions: 30 rescue breaths.
B. 5 compressions: 1 rescue breath.
C. 15 compressions: 2 rescue breaths.
D. 30 compressions: 2 rescue breaths
27. The injection of medications into the circulatory system, that often provides the most
rapid drug delivery and absorption, is a description of the:
A. Enteral drug route and per os.
B. Parenteral drug route.
C. Percutaneous route.
D. Endotracheal route.
28. Which of the following event happened when Ventricular is in state of “rest" and/or
ventricular filling of blood?
Page 6 of 41
A. S2 Sound
C. S4 Sound
29. Based on the knowledge you have in Health assessment, indicate the location of
auscultation of Aortic sound
A. Aortic is located at 2nd
intercostal space and left sternal border
B. Aortic is located at 2nd intercostal space and right sternal border
C. Aortic is located at 3rd
intercostal space and right sternal border
D. Aortic is located at 3rd
intercostal space and left sternal border
30. Color, size, shape, position and symmetry can be assessed using:
81. The nurse’s unique function is to assist patients, sick or well, in the performance of
those activities contributing to health or its recovery (or to peaceful death) that they
would perform unaided if they had the necessary strength, will, or knowledge—and to do
this in such a way as to help them gain independence as rapidly as possible. This
statement state nursing definition in which of the following nursing theorist?
82. Alleviation of suffering through the diagnosis and treatment of human response is core
role in which of the following health provider?
A. Registered nurse
B. General doctor
C. Specialist doctor
D. Psychologist doctor
83. The essential core of nursing practice is:
A. To deliver physiological patient-centered care
B. To deliver holistic, patient-centered care
C. To deliver spiritual, patient-centered care
Page 7 of 41
D. To deliver social, patient-centered care
84. Patient-centered care model refer to:
A. Health care Involving patient in making care decisions in medical treatment of
B. Health care Involving patient making care decisions in medical diagnosis and
C. Health care Involving Patients and caregivers in making care decisions and
managing the patient’s care
D. Health care Involving patient in making care decisions in surgical procedure of
85. Long-term care refers to the care of patients for a period greater than:
A. 10 day
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 25 day
86. Nursing caring using Critical thinking refer to:
A. Memorizing a list of facts or the steps of a procedure
B. The ability to solve problems by making sense of information.
C. Multidisciplinary team working
D. Assisting patient in achieving her optimal independence
87. Nursing diagnosis phase of nursing process refer to:
A. Identifying patient signs and symptoms
B. Writing patient’s health general status
C. Identifying and labeling human responses to actual or potential health
problems or life processes
D. Identifying and labeling human patient independent actions or life processes
88. During planning a phase of nursing process a nurse do the following:
A. Make nursing diagnosis
B. Develop patient outcomes or goals and identification of nursing interventions to
accomplish the diagnosis
Page 8 of 41
C. Develop patient outcomes or goals and identification of nursing interventions to
accomplish subjective and objective data
D. Develop patient outcomes or goals and identification of nursing
interventions to accomplish the outcomes
89. If a nurse has planned that within 24 hours the patient will be free from pain and during
evaluation after 24 hours she found that patient still have pain the nurse will do the
A. Document and call doctor to come to see a patient
B. Ask patient why the pain persist and call doctor
C. Repeat the interventions and call doctor
D. Review of the steps of the nursing process to determine why not
90. To characterize community health status a nurse would base on the following health
A. Birth and death rates
B. Life expectancy and access to care
C. Morbidity and mortality rates
D. Families and their financial resources
91. A nurse will be sure that Health equity is achieved when:
A. Every woman has the opportunity to attain his or her health potential and no one
B. Every man has the opportunity to attain his or her health potential and no one is
C. Every person has the opportunity to attain his or her health potential and no one is
D. Every children has the opportunity to attain his or her health potential and no one
92. During patient care, patient assessment is performed:
A. At the initial contact with client to identify nursing diagnosis
B. At the initial contact with client to identify nursing interventions
C. At the initial contact with client to identify nursing goals
D. At the initial contact with client and continually throughout the nursing
Page 9 of 41
93. The anxiety disorder involving persistent thoughts, ideas or images and repetitive
behaviors is called:
B. Repetitive syndrome
C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. Panic disorder
94. The following is a method to find out symptoms of diseases from the patient:
95. The patient health history and physical examination provide the nurse with information to
A. Diagnose a medical problem.
B. Investigate a patient’s signs and symptoms.
C. Classify subjective and objective patient data.
D. Identify nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems.
96. The nurse is preparing to examine a patient’s abdomen. Identify the proper order of the
steps in the assessment of the abdomen.
A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
B. Inspection ,Percussion, Auscultation, Palpation
C. Inspection , Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
D. Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
97. Which situation would require the nurse to obtain a focused assessment?
A. A patient denies a current health problem.
B. A patient reports a new symptom during rounds.
C. A previously identified problem needs reassessment.
D. A baseline health maintenance examination is required.
98. Nursing interventions directed at health promotion in the older adult are primarily
A. Disease management.
B. Controlling symptoms of illness.
C. Teaching positive health behaviors.
D. Teaching regarding nutrition to enhance longevity.
Page 10 of 41
99. Pain is best described as:
A creation of a person’s imagination.
An unpleasant, subjective experience.
C. A maladaptive response to a stimulus.
D. A neurologic event resulting from activation of nociceptors.
100. An example of distraction to provide pain relief is:
101. An important nursing duty related to pain is to:
A. Leave the patient alone to rest.
B. Help the patient appear to not be in pain.
C. Believe what the patient says about the pain.
D. Assume responsibility for eliminating the patient’s pain.
102. A nurse believes that patients with the same type of tissue injury should have the
same amount of pain. This statement reflects:
A. A belief that will contribute to appropriate pain management.
B. An accurate statement about pain mechanisms and an expected goal of pain
C. A belief that will have no effect on the type of care provided to people in pain.
D. A lack of knowledge about pain mechanisms, which is likely to contribute to
poor pain management.
103. Appropriate nonopioid analgesics for mild pain include :
B. Ibuprofen (Advil).
C. Lorazepam (Ativan).
D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol).
104. An 80-year-old female patient is receiving palliative care for heart failure.
Primary purpose(s) of her receiving palliative care is to:
A. Improve her quality of life.
B. Assess her coping ability with disease.
C. Have time to teach patient and family about disease.
Page 11 of 41
D. Focus on reducing the severity of disease symptoms.
105. A father who has an X-linked recessive disorder and a wife with a normal
A. Pass the carrier state to his male children.
B. Pass the carrier state to all of his children.
C. Pass the carrier state to his female children.
D. Not pass on the genetic mutation to any of his children.
106. Immunization with antigen gives which of the following acquired immunity?
A. Active Acquired Immunity
B. Passive Acquired Immunity
C. Innate Immunity.
D. Active and passive acquired Immunity
107. The reason newborns are protected for the first 6 months of life from bacterial
infections is because of the maternal transmission of:
108.The nurse is alerted to possible anaphylactic shock immediately after a patient has
received intramuscular penicillin by the development of:
A. Edema and itching at the injection site.
B. Sneezing and itching of the nose and eyes.
C. A wheal-and-flare reaction at the injection site.
D. Chest tightness and production of thick sputum
109. Screening for HIV infection generally involves:
A. Laboratory analysis of blood to detect HIV antigen.
B. Electrophoretic analysis for HIV antigen in plasma.
C. Laboratory analysis of blood to detect HIV antibodies.
D. Analysis of lymph tissues for the presence of HIV RNA.
110. Antiretroviral drugs are used to:
Page 12 of 41
A. Cure acute HIV infection.
B. Decrease viral RNA levels.
C. Treat opportunistic diseases.
D. Decrease pain and symptoms in terminal disease.
111. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to help an HIV-infected patient
adhere to a treatment regimen?
A. “Set up” a drug pillbox for the patient every week.
B. Give the patient a video and a brochure to view and read at home.
C. Tell the patient that the side effects of the drugs are bad but that they go away
after a while.
D. Assess the patient’s routines and find adherence cues that fit into the
patient’s life circumstances.
112. Which of the following statement describe the pathogenesis of HIV infection?
A. The virus replicates mainly in B-cells before spreading to CD4+ T cells.
B. Infection of monocytes may occur, but antibodies quickly destroy these cells.
C. The immune system is impaired predominantly by the eventual widespread
destruction of CD4+ T cells.
D. A long period of dormancy develops during which HIV cannot be found in the
blood and there is little viral replication.
113. The nurse counsels the patient receiving radiation therapy or chemotherapy that:
A. Effective birth control methods should be used for the rest of the patient’s life.
B. If nausea and vomiting occur during treatment, the treatment plan will be
C. After successful treatment, a return to the person’s previous functional level
can be expected.
D. The cycle of fatigue-depression-fatigue that may occur during treatment can be
reduced by restricting activity.
114. Which of the following is the disease of the myelin sheath?
A. Alzheimer disease
B. Multiple sclerosis
Page 13 of 41
115. Mental health is defined as:
A. A constant feeling of contentment
B. Striking a balance in all aspects of your life - social, physical, spiritual,
C. Achieving a period of 12-18 months without a psychotic episode
D. A mental illness with symptoms that include hallucinations, delusions, social
withdrawal and thought disorders
116. The nurse should be alert for which manifestations in a patient receiving a loop
A. Restlessness and agitation
B. Paresthesias and irritability
C. Weak, irregular pulse and poor muscle tone
D. Increased blood pressure and muscle spasms
117. An older woman was admitted to the medical unit with dehydration. Clinical
indications of this problem are:
A. Weight loss, dry oral mucosa, decreased central venous pressure
B. Dry oral mucosa, full bounding pulse and weight loss
C. Weight loss, dry oral mucosa, and engorged neck veins.
D. Decreased central venous pressure, weight loss and full bounding pulse.
118. The type of delusion most commonly seen in manic patient is:
A. Delusion of grandeur
B. Delusion of persecution
C. Delusion of guilt
D. Nihilistic delusion
119. The lungs act as an acid-base buffer by:
A. Increasing respiratory rate and depth when CO2 levels in the blood are high,
reducing acid load.
B. Increasing respiratory rate and depth when CO2 levels in the blood are low,
reducing base load.
C. Decreasing respiratory rate and depth when CO2 levels in the blood are high,
reducing acid load.
D. Decreasing respiratory rate and depth when CO2 levels in the blood are low,
increasing acid load.
Page 14 of 41
120. The nurse is preparing the patient for a diagnostic procedure to remove pleural
fluid for analysis. The nurse would prepare the patient for which test?
C. Pulmonary angiography
D. Sputum culture and sensitivity
121. A student nurse asks the RN what can be measured by arterial blood gases
(ABGs). The RN tells the student that the ABGs can measure the following except:
A. Acid-base balance.
B. Oxygenation status.
C. Glucose bound to hemoglobin.
D. Bicarbonate (HCO3−) in arterial blood.
122. A patient was seen in the clinic for an episode of epistaxis, which was controlled
by placement of anterior nasal packing. During discharge teaching, the nurse instructs the
A. Use aspirin for pain relief.
B. Remove the packing later that day.
C. Skip the next dose of antihypertensive medication.
D. Avoid vigorous nose blowing and strenuous activity.
123. An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with pneumonia with the nursing
diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions and fatigue would be
A. Perform postural drainage every hour.
B. Provide analgesics as ordered to promote patient comfort.
C. Administer O2 as prescribed to maintain optimal oxygen levels.
D. Teach the patient how to cough effectively to bring secretions to the mouth.
124. The following patients with pneumonia the nurse would suspect aspiration as the
likely cause of pneumonia except:
A. Patient with seizures
B. Patient with head injury
C. Patient who had a myocardial infarction
D. Patient who is receiving nasogastric tube feeding
125. The effects of cigarette smoking on the respiratory system include:
A. Hypertrophy of capillaries causing hemoptysis.
B. Hyperplasia of goblet cells and increased production of mucus.
Page 15 of 41
C. Increased proliferation of cilia and decreased clearance of mucus.
D. Proliferation of alveolar macrophages to decrease the risk for infection.
126. Significant information obtained from the patient’s health history that relates to
the hematologic system includes:
B. Bladder surgery.
C. Early menopause.
D. Multiple pregnancies.
127. You are taking care of a male patient who has the following laboratory values
from his CBC: WBC 3.5 × 103/μL, Hgb 13.4 g/dL, Hct 40%, platelets 50 × 103/μL.
What are you most concerned about?
A. Your patient is neutropenic.
B. Your patient has an infection.
C. Your patient is at risk for bleeding.
D. Your patient is at fall risk due to his anemia.
128. In a severely anemic patient, the nurse would expect to find:
A. Dyspnea and tachycardia.
B. Cyanosis and pulmonary edema.
C. Cardiomegaly and pulmonary fibrosis.
D. Ventricular dysrhythmias and wheezing.
129. The nurse is aware that a major difference between Hodgkin’s lymphoma and
non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is that:
A. Hodgkin’s lymphoma occurs only in young adults.
B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma is considered potentially curable.
C. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma can manifest in multiple organs.
D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma occurs only in young adults.
130. A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaired blood flow between
A. Vena cava and right atrium.
B. Left atrium and left ventricle.
Page 16 of 41
C. Right atrium and right ventricle.
D. Right ventricle and pulmonary artery.
131. A patient in state of ineffective coughing a nurse in care plan she will know that
she has to prevent which the following complication?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Bronchial edema
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Aspiration pneumonia
132. Myocardial Ischemia is temporarily deprivation of blood supply in myocardium.
For better understand pathophysiology of this condition a nurse will know that the
following vessel is obstructed:
A. Inferior vein cava
B. coronary artery
C. carotid artery
D. superior vein cava
133. In valvular stenosis the workload of the cardiac chamber in front of the diseased
valve will be:
D. No correct response
134. The auscultatory area in the left midclavicular line at the level of the fifth ICS is
the best location to hear sounds from which heart valve?
135. While obtaining subjective assessment data from a patient with hypertension, the
nurse recognizes that a modifiable risk factor for the development of hypertension is:
A. A low-calcium diet.
B. Excessive alcohol consumption.
C. A family history of hypertension.
D. Consumption of a high-protein diet.
136. In teaching a patient with hypertension about controlling the condition, the nurse
Page 17 of 41
A. All patients with elevated BP require medication.
B. Obese persons must achieve a normal weight to lower BP.
C. It is not necessary to limit salt in the diet if taking a diuretic.
D. Lifestyle modifications are indicated for all persons with elevated BP.
137. A patient with newly discovered high BP has an average reading of 158/98 mm
Hg after 3 months of exercise and diet modifications. Which management strategy will be
a priority for this patient?
A. Medication will be required because the BP is still not at goal.
B. BP monitoring should continue for another 3 months to confirm a diagnosis of
C. Lifestyle changes are less important, since they were not effective, and
medications will be started.
D. More vigorous changes in the patient’s lifestyle are needed for a longer time
before starting medications.
138. Basing on pathophysiology of hypertension the following is the basic explanation
A. Increased cardiac output plus increased stroke volume
B. Increased cardiac output plus decreased peripheral vascular resistance
C. Increased stroke volume, heart rate and increased vascular resistance
D. Increased stroke volume and increased vascular resistance
139. When teaching a patient about the long-term consequences of rheumatic fever, the
nurse should discuss the possibility of:
A. Valvular heart disease.
B. Pulmonary hypertension.
C. Superior vena cava syndrome.
D. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle.
140. Which is a priority nursing intervention for a patient during the acute phase of
A. Administration of antibiotics as ordered
B. Management of pain with opioid analgesics
C. Encouragement of fluid intake for hydration
D. Performance of frequent active range-of-motion exercises
141. Which clinical finding would most likely indicate decreased cardiac output in a
patient with aortic valve regurgitation?
A. Reduction in peripheral edema and weight
Page 18 of 41
B. Carotid venous distention and new-onset atrial fibrillation
C. Significant pulsus paradoxus and diminished peripheral pulses
D. Shortness of breath on minimal exertion and a diastolic murmur
142. Which diagnostic study best differentiates the various types of cardiomyopathy?
B. Arterial blood gases
C. Cardiac catheterization
D. Endomyocardial biopsy
143. A key aspect of teaching for the patient on anticoagulant therapy includes which
A. Monitor for and report any signs of bleeding.
B. Do not take acetaminophen (Tylenol) for a headache.
C. Decrease your dietary intake of foods containing vitamin K.
D. Arrange to have blood drawn routinely to check drug levels.
144. A patient has an elevated blood level of indirect (unconjugated) bilirubin. One
cause of this finding is that:
A. The gallbladder is unable to contract to release stored bile.
B. Bilirubin is not being conjugated and excreted into the bile by the liver.
C. The Kupffer cells in the liver are unable to remove bilirubin from the blood.
D. There is an obstruction in the biliary tract preventing flow of bile into the small
145. During an examination of the abdomen the nurse should:
A. Position the patient in the supine position with the bed flat and knees straight.
B. Listen in the epigastrium and all four quadrants for 2 minutes for bowel
C. Use the following order of techniques: inspection, palpation, percussion,
D. Describe bowel sounds as absent if no sound is heard in the lower right quadrant
after 2 minutes.
146. Which statement best describes the etiology of obesity?
A. Obesity primarily results from a genetic predisposition.
B. Psychosocial factors can override the effects of genetics in the etiology of obesity.
C. Obesity is the result of complex interactions between genetic and
Page 19 of 41
D. Genetic factors are more important than environmental factors in the etiology of
147. The nurse teaching young adults about behaviors that put them at risk for oral
A. Discouraging use of chewing gum.
B. Avoiding use of perfumed lip gloss.
C. Avoiding use of smokeless tobacco.
D. Discouraging drinking of carbonated beverages.
148. The nurse is teaching the patient and family that peptic ulcers are:
A. Caused by a stressful lifestyle and other acid-producing factors such as H. pylori.
B. Inherited within families and reinforced by bacterial spread of Staphylococcus
aureus in childhood.
C. Promoted by factors that tend to cause over secretion of acid, such as excess
dietary fats, smoking, and H. pylori.
D. Promoted by a combination of factors that may result in erosion of the
gastric mucosa, including certain drugs and alcohol.
149. The appropriate collaborative therapy for the patient with acute diarrhea caused
by a viral infection is to:
A. Increase fluid intake.
B. Administer an antibiotic.
C. Administer antimotility drugs.
D. Quarantine the patient to prevent spread of the virus.
150. Assessment findings suggestive of peritonitis include:
A. Rebound abdominal pain.
B. A soft, distended abdomen.
C. Dull, continuous abdominal pain.
D. Observing that the patient is restless.
151. A patient with acute hepatitis B is being discharged in 2 days. In the discharge
teaching plan the nurse should include instructions to:
A. Avoid alcohol for the first 3 weeks.
B. Use a condom during sexual intercourse.
C. Have family members get an injection of immunoglobulin.
D. Follow a low-protein, moderate-carbohydrate, moderate-fat diet.
Page 20 of 41
152. The patient with advanced cirrhosis asks why his abdomen is so swollen. The
nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that:
A. A lack of clotting factors promotes the collection of blood in the abdominal
B. Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia cause a fluid shift into the
C. Decreased peristalsis in the GI tract contributes to gas formation and distention of
D. Bile salts in the blood irritate the peritoneal membranes, causing edema and
pocketing of fluid.
153. In teaching a patient with pyelonephritis about the disorder, the nurse informs the
patient that the organisms that cause pyelonephritis most commonly reach the kidneys
A. The bloodstream.
B. The lymphatic system.
C. A descending infection.
D. An ascending infection.
154. A patient is admitted to the hospital with severe renal colic. The nurse’s first
priority in management of the patient is to:
A. Administer opioids as prescribed.
B. Obtain supplies for straining all urine.
C. Encourage fluid intake of 3 to 4 L/day.
D. Keep the patient NPO in preparation for surgery.
155. If a patient is in the diuretic phase of AKI, the nurse must monitor for which
serum electrolyte imbalances?
A. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia
B. Hyperkalemia and hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia and hyponatremia
D. Hypokalemia and hypernatremia
156. A patient is admitted to the hospital with chronic kidney disease. The nurse
understands that this condition is characterized by:
A. Progressive irreversible destruction of the kidneys.
B. A rapid decrease in urine output with an elevated BUN.
C. An increasing creatinine clearance with a decrease in urine output.
Page 21 of 41
D. Prostration, somnolence, and confusion with coma and imminent death. Nurses
need to teach patients at risk for developing
157. Chronic kidney disease individuals considered to be at increased risk include the
A. Patients more than 60 years old.
B. Those with a history of pancreatitis.
C. Those with a history of hypertension.
D. Those with a history of type 2 diabetes.
158. A kidney transplant recipient complains of having fever, chills, and dysuria over
the past 2 days. What is the first action that the nurse should take?
A. Assess temperature and initiate workup to rule out infection.
B. Reassure the patient that this is common after transplantation.
C. Provide warm cover for the patient and give 1 g acetaminophen orally.
D. Notify the nephrologist that the patient has developed symptoms of acute
159. Polydipsia and polyuria related to diabetes mellitus are primarily due to:
A. The release of ketones from cells during fat metabolism.
B. Fluid shifts resulting from the osmotic effect of hyperglycemia.
C. Damage to the kidneys from exposure to high levels of glucose.
D. Changes in RBCs resulting from attachment of excessive glucose to hemoglobin.
160. You are caring for a patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes. What
information is essential to include in your patient teaching before discharge from the
A. Insulin administration
B. Elimination of sugar from diet
C. Need to reduce physical activity
D. Not use of a portable blood glucose monitor
161. If the LMP is Jan. 30, the expected date of delivery (EDD) is:
A. Nov. 7
B. Oct. 24
C. Oct. 7
D. Nov. 8
162. The first antenatal visit should be done when?
A. Second trimester
Page 22 of 41
B. First trimester
C. As soon as the woman knows she is pregnant
D. Third trimester
163. A 10kg child is 8% dehydrated. He should be rehydrates as the following:
A. 750mls of ORS during the first hour then 250mls in the following three hours
B. 500mls of ORS during the first hour then 500mls in the following three hours
C. 250mls of ORS during the first hour then 500mls in the following three hours
D. 500mls of ORS during the first hour then 250mls in the following three hours
164. Mrs. Nyirabagenzi is on her 5th
pregnancy and has a history of abortion in the 4th
pregnancy and the first pregnancy was a twin. She is considered to be:
A. G 4 P 3
B. G 4 P 4
C. G 5 P 3
D. G 5 P 4
165. The nursing measure to relieve fetal distress due to maternal supine hypotension
A. Place the mother on semi-fowler’s position
B. Any of the above
C. Place mother on a knee chest position
D. Put the mother on left side lying position
166. Which of the following causes of infertility in the female is primarily
psychological in origin?
167. Papanicolaou smear is usually done to determine cancer of:
B. Fallopian tubes
168. The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test is:
B. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D. Follicle Stimulating hormone
169. You performed the Leopold’s maneuver and found the following: breech
presentation, fetal back at the right side of the mother. Based on these findings, you can
hear the fetal heart beat BEST in which location?
A. Left upper quadrant
Page 23 of 41
B. Left lower quadrant
C. Right lower quadrant
D. Right upper quadrant
170. Which of The following are way of determining expected date of delivery (EDD)
when the LMP is known?
A. McDonald’s rule
B. Naegele’s rule
D. Bartholomew’s rule of 4
171. You want to perform a pelvic examination on one of your pregnant clients. You
prepare your client for the procedure by:
A. Doing a vaginal prep
B. Giving the client a perineal care
C. Taking her vital signs and recording the readings
D. Asking her to void
172. Which is the most common cause of abnormal lie of fetus in uterus?
B. Twin pregnancy
C. Uterine deformity
D. Placenta praevia
173. ALL BUT ONE is the Leopold maneuvers technique, indicate the exception:
A. Delivery of head
B. Vaginal examination
C. Breech extraction
D. Examination of abdomen.
174. Most important cause of immediate post-partum hemorrhage is:
A. Laceration of cervix
B. Laceration of vagina
C. Uterine atony
D. Placental fragment retention
175. What is the most complication seen on the pregnant mother, who had Moto/car
A. Premature delivery
B. Vaginal discharge
C. Placenta abruption
176. What is the best medicine do we use for intestinal parasites in pregnancy?
177. All Are The Components Of The Partogram except:
A. Measuring Fetal Well Being during Labor
B. Fetal heart rates and pattern
Page 24 of 41
C. Degree of molding, caput
D. Color of amniotic fluid
178. A Nurse conducted delivery of mother who delivered a female healthy full term
baby in good condition. During the second stage of labor, the nurse assisted the delivery
with a midline episiotomy. The aim of the episiotomy is to:
A. Allow fetal head to extend during restitution
B. Prevent perineal and anal laceration
C. Decrease trauma to the baby’s head as it extends
D. Shorten the length of second stage of labor.
179. A woman have been advised by the medical doctor that she will receive Gamma
Globulin. In which period of time Gamma Globulins are administered?
A. Within 12hours only after delivery or abortion of mother who are Rhesus negative
B. 24 hours post-delivery or abortion of mother who are Rhesus negative
C. 36 hours only post-delivery or abortion of mother who are Rhesus negative
D. Within 72 hours post-delivery or abortion of mother who are Rhesus
180. The active management of the 3rd
stage of labor involves one of the following:
A. Immediate cord clamping, administration of oxytocin and control cord
B. Delay in cutting the cord, observe gushing out of blood from the vagina
C. Oxytocin administration by the cord and gentle rubbing of the uterine fundus
D. Promote baby skin to skin contact with the mother and apply control cord traction
181. The active phase of the first stage of labor is defined to begin when the cervix is
A. 2 cm
B. 8 cm
C. 4 cm
D. 10 cm
182. Tooth eruption is variable primarily because of genetic factors. On average,
normal infant should have:
A. 12 teeth by 6 months
B. 6 teeth by 2 years
C. 6 teeth by 12 months
D. 16 teeth by 18 months
Page 25 of 41
183. Sarah meets you in front of health center asking the vaccines that her young infant
of 1 day at birth is going to receive. One of the following shall be your best answer to
A. Polio and BCG
B. Only BCG is essential
C. Polio 1, pentavalent 1, PCV(13)1 and Rotateq 1
D. Vitamin A to prevent blindness.
184. Mary brought her child for immunization and tells you that her child has got an
egg allergy. What is the vaccine of the following condition that should not be given to
185. Anterior fontanelle closes at the age of:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
186. Many health problems are caused by air pollution and the most source of it is:
C. Deforestation and natural fires
D. Animal wastes and Industrial wastes
187. You are at home and you hear screaming in the street. You run out and find a
child with a bleeding arm. The child reports that she was bitten by a dog. You take her to
the nearest emergency room. What should be done for post-exposure vaccination?
A. DTP+ Hep B +Hib, OPV, PCV--‐13,
B. Measles+ Rubella
D. Rabies and Tetanus
Page 26 of 41
What is a disadvantage of group decision making or problem solving?
Greater knowledge and information
More diverse points of view
Increased likelihood of acceptance and understanding of the decision
Requires more time and resources
189. Taste perception of the baby develops at:
B. 4 months
C. 8 months
D. 2 years
190. Excess of vitamin K in a new born causes :
C. Bleeding tendencies
191. Kwashiorkor is diagnosed in growth retarded children along with:
A. Edema and mental retardation
B. Edema and hypopigmentation
C. Hypopigmentation and anemia
D. Hepatomegaly and anemia
192. A child can walk up and down the stairs alternating his fee by which age?
A. 12 months
B. 24 months
C. 36 months
D. 48 months
193. Breast feeding is recommended at least for:
A. 4 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
194. According the World Health Organization the minimum number of antenatal
visits a woman should have during pregnancy is:
Page 27 of 41
195. As a child health care nurse you shall explain to the juniors that in asthmatic
children, the respiratory difficult is more pronounced during the expiratory phase
A. The bronchi constrict and shorten during inspiration
B. The bronchi dilate and shorten during inspiration
C. The bronchi dilate and shorten during expiration
D. The bronchi constrict and shorten during expiration
196. Which vitamin deficiency is not seen in newborn?
197. Nana, age 13, has had a lumbar puncture to examine the CSF to determine if
bacterial infection exists. The best position to keep her in after the procedure is:
A. Prone for two hours to prevent aspiration, should she vomit.
B. Semi-fowler’s so she can watch cartoon on TV for five hours and play phone
C. Supine for several hours, to prevent headache.
D. On her right sides to encourage return of CSF
198. Doctor has prescribed Syrup Ampicillin 62.5mg to child with pneumonia. The
label on the bottle reads 125mg per 5mls. How many ml will you serve?
A. 0.5 ml
B. 2.0 ml
C. 2.5 ml
D. 10 ml
199. If the child defecates within 30 minutes of suppository administration, you
A. Hold the child's buttocks together.
B. Document that the child must never be given rectal medications.
C. Examine the stool for the suppository.
D. Insert another suppository right away.
200. Which is incorrect about thumb sucking
A. Can lead to malocclusion
B. Is a source of pleasure
Page 29 of 41
D. Must be treated vigorously in the first year
201. Which of the followings elements are components of the APGAR score?
A. Temperature, grimace, heartbeat, breathing, muscle tone
B. Color, grimace, temperature, heartbeat, breathing.
C. Breathing, muscle tone, weight, color and temperature
D. Color, grimace, heartbeat, breathing, muscle tone
202. John has been tested psychologically, and has IQ of 30%. Choose the wrong
A. John has an intellectual deficiency
B. John is an idiot
C. John has a severe mental retardation
D. John has a mental retardation
203. A young school girl who is HIV positive comes to you for advice regarding
continuing her education and you discover she is not yet started on anti-retro virus
therapy. When would you advise her to start taking treatment?
A. Start the treatment without considering the CD 4 count
B. When the CD4 count CD4 is 200/mm3
C. When the CD4 count is less than 200/ mm3
D. When the CD4 count is 300/ mm3
204. One of the following statement is true about SDGs:
A. 17 Goals, 186 targets and 232 indicators
B. 17 Goals, 186 targets and 233 indicators
C. 17 Goals, 169 targets and 230 indicators
D. 17 Goals, 168 targets and 232 indicators
205. A client presents to the FP consultation: the history taking and physical exam are
normal (check the correct answer):
A. You put the method
B. You request biological support before giving it a method
C. You prescribe the preferred method after explaining all available method
D. You put the method you want
206. These are health promotion topics except:
A. Promotion of desirable/desired births
B. Breast feeding promotion
C. Promotion of the fight against the smoking/nicotine addiction and alcoholism
D. None of above
207. 1st International Conference on Health Promotion, which resulted in the "Ottawa
Charter for Health Promotion" took place in Ottawa in this year:
Page 30 of 41
208. To fight against or to prevent nosocomial infections, the best first measure to be
A. Administer appropriate antibiotics and other drugs
B. Health education to the population about diseases
C. Isolation of infected people
D. Vaccination of the population
209. In hygiene promotion a written report will show the following information
A. Interpretation of results
C. Situation of the problem
D. Recommendations and Results obtained
210. If a child is 10years old and her mental age is 5, what is her IQ
211. The germ which is responsible for an epidemic meningitis is called:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Neisseria meningitis
C. Streptococcus pneumonia
D. Listeria monocytogene
212. Some infectious diseases affect a human and make him to develop immunity. This
immunity developed by a human after being exposed to an infectious disease is called:
A. Artificially acquired active immunity
B. Naturally acquired passive immunity
C. Naturally acquired active immunity
D. Artificially acquired passive immunity
213. Which of the following germs are responsible for dysentery?
A. Shigella spp, Entamoeba coli and Schistosoma mansoni
B. Entamoeba histolytica, Schistosoma mansoni and Shigella spp
C. Shigella spp, Schistosoma haematobium and Entamoeba histolytica
D. Staphylococcus aureus
214. One of the following statements is a risk factor of Down syndrome:
A. maternal use of alcohol and drugs
B. Hypoxia at birth and shortly after birth
C. advanced maternal age at conception
Page 31 of 41
D. malnutrition of the mother
215. One of these statements should be used in suspicion of cerebral palsy in a 6
months old child:
A. She/he cannot sit without support
B. She/he can’t even crawl
C. She/he cannot stand alone
D. She/he cannot yet control her head
216. Which part of the female reproductive system serves as a pathway for the ovum to
B. Fallopian tubes
217. John is a three years old boy with the first respiratory problems attack that looks
like asthma. You notice that the following sign may be among the prodroms of asthma:
A. Head lag
B. Itching at the front of the neck
C. Severe headache
D. Loud whoop
218. In a women with a 32 day menstrual cycle, you would expect her to ovulate on
approximately which day of her cycle?
219. ALL BUT ONE of the following are among tocolytic agents
(uterorelaxant).Indicate the exception:
D. Magnesium sulfate
220. A woman with a term, uncomplicated pregnancy comes into labor ward in earl
active phase of labor saying that she thinks her fore water is broken. Which action should
the nurse/ midwife takes?
A. Prepare the woman for delivery without delay
B. Perform immediately vaginal examination
Page 32 of 41
C. Immediately contact doctor for next action d) Collect sample of fluid for
D. Collect sample of fluid for microbial analysis
221. The newborn care include a set of nursing interventions aim to assure the welfare
of the baby. Which nursing intervention helps prevent evaporative heat loss in the
neonate immediately after birth?
A. Immediate drying the neonate
B. Administer warm oxygen
C. controlling drafts in the room
D. Placing neonate on a warm, dry towel
222. The most reason for Isolation of clients with tetanus is:
A. To minimize muscle spasms and convulsions
B. To minimize contamination of others
C. To avoid transmission of infection via droplets
D. To prevent superinfection
223. The following are functions of a HRM (Human Resource Manager) EXCEPT:
A. Strategic planning
B. Discharging patients
C. Recruitment and staffing
D. Retention of employees
224. A female child, age 2, is brought to the emergency department after ingesting an
unknown number of aspirin tablets about 30 minutes earlier. On entering the examination
room, the child is crying and clinging to the mother. Which data should the nurse obtain
A. Heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure
B. Recent exposure to communicable diseases
C. Number of immunizations received
D. Height and weight
225. Health promotion is:
A. the process of enabling people to increase control over, & to improve, their
B. Consciously constructed opportunities for learning involving some form of
communication designed to improve health literacy, improving knowledge &
developing life skills which are conducive to individual & community health.
Page 33 of 41
C. ‘The degree to which individuals have the capacity to obtain, process and
understand basic health information and the services needed to make appropriate
D. The health of the People who are homeless, dealing with addiction, or
experiencing family violence & abuse
226. Which of the below are classified as "Vulnerable population"?
A. People living with permanent disability, mental illness & other chronic conditions
B. People from certain racial & ethnic minority groups, such as indigenous
Australians, new immigrants, refugees & asylum seekers
C. People with limited self-care capacity, such as the frail-aged, the very young
& those with limited educational & social capacity
D. All of the above
227. Appropriate insertion urinary catheterization follows aseptic technique, which
includes the use of which of the following?
A. Sterile gloves
B. Sterile drapes
C. Sterile skin antiseptic
D. All of the above
228. Which of the following size of Foley catheter is the best appropriate in boy kid
with six years old?
A. 22 CH
B. 18 CH
C. 14 Fr
D. 8 CH
229. To control the side effects of corticosteroid therapy, the nurse teaches the patient
who is taking corticosteroids to:
A. Increase calcium intake to 1500 mg/day.
B. Perform glucose monitoring for hypoglycemia.
C. Obtain immunizations due to high risk of infections.
D. Avoid abrupt position changes because of orthostatic hypotension.
230. To evaluate the female patient’s breasts, the nurse would use the examination
technique of :
A. Palpation, inspection, and auscultation
B. Percussion, and palpation
C. Inspection, and palpation
D. Inspection, percussion, palpation and auscultation
Page 34 of 41
231. An abnormal finding noted during physical assessment of the male reproductive
A. Descended testes.
B. Symmetric scrotum.
C. Slight clear urethral discharge.
D. The glans covered with prepuce.
232. To prevent the infection and transmission of STIs, the nurse’s teaching plan
would include an explanation of:
A. The appropriate use of oral contraceptives.
B. Sexual positions that can be used to avoid infection.
C. The necessity of annual Pap tests for patients with HPV.
D. Sexual practices that are considered high-risk behaviors.
233. A couple who wants to conceive but has been unsuccessful during the last 2 years
has undergone many diagnostic procedures. When discussing the situation with the nurse,
one partner states, “We know several friends in our age group and all of them have their
own child already, why can’t we have one?” Which of the following would be the most
pertinent nursing diagnosis for this couple?
A. Fear related to the unknown
B. Pain related to numerous procedures.
C. Ineffective family coping related to infertility.
D. Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility.
234. When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing aching swollen, leg
veins, the nurse would explain that this is most probably the result of which of the
B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
C. Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus
D. The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus
235. Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are most likely the
result of which of the following?
A. Increased plasma HCG levels
B. Decreased intestinal motility
C. Decreased gastric acidity
D. Elevated estrogen levels
236. Which of the following would cause a false-positive result on a pregnancy test?
Page 1 of 41
A. The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortion
B. The test was performed too early or too late in the
pregnancy C. The urine sample was stored too long at room
D. A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion is impending
237. FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the
following: A. 5 weeks gestation
B. 10 weeks
gestation C. 12
weeks gestation D.
20 weeks gestation
238. A child is diagnosed with Wilms’ tumor. During assessment, the nurse in
charge expects to detect:
A. Gross hematuria
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. An abdominal mass
239. Which of the following microrganisms is responsible for the development
A. Streptococcal pneumonia
B. Haemophilus influenza
C. Group A β-hemolytic streptococcus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
240. The adolescent patient has symptoms of meningitis: nuchal rigidity,
fever, vomiting, and lethargy. The nurse knows to prepare for the following
A. Lumbar puncture.
B. Sputum culture.
C. Throat and ear
culture. D. Chest X-
1. Transfusions in emergent situations do not allow time for a complete crossmatch. Under
these circumstances, the fastest choice blood to use is:
A. Type O, Rh-negative
B. Type O, Rh-positive
C. Type AB, Rh-negative
D. Type A, Rh-negative
2. Which of the following surgical procedures involves removal of a body organ?
Page 2 of 41
3. Which of the following is the primary purpose of maintaining NPO for 6 to 8 hours before
A. To prevent malnutrition
B. To prevent electrolyte imbalance
C. To prevent intestinal obstruction
D. To prevent aspiration
4. A properly executed informed consent for surgery should include the following Except:
A. Signature of the patient or patient’s representative
B. Names of everyone that will be in the OR when the procedure is performed
C. Name of the individual who witnessed the signature
D. Specific name of the intervention to be performed.
5. Which surgical procedure is done for Cosmetic purposes?
C. Breast biopsy
6. The pre-incision TIME OUT should be performed by which member(s) of the
A. All perioperative team members
B. All perioperative team members except anesthesia professionals
C. Scrub nurses only
D. Surgeons only
7. All surgery types involves invasion of the body requires informed consent form
(preoperative consent) from client or legal guardian. Informed consent helps:
A. To protect the client from any incorrect or unwanted procedure
B. To protect surgeon and facility from law suit, claims related to unauthorized
Surgery or uninformed client
C. To help as a witness between surgeon and client.
D. all the above are correct
Page 3 of 41
8. Which of the following is the cause of osteomalacia?
A. Deficient of Vitamin B
B. Deficient of Vitamin C
C. Deficient of Vitamin D
D. Deficient of Vitamin A
9. The urinary catheter (Foley) is needed before, during and after surgery for which
A. To prevent urinary tract infections
B. To keep the bladder empty and to monitor renal function
C. To monitor closely vital signs
D. To keep the bladder full during operation.
10. Which activity is NOT recommended to reduce the risk of surgical infections?
A. Perform a TIME OUT before beginning the procedure
B. Administer prophylactic antibiotics as directed
C. Minimize movement and talking during the operative procedure
D. Perform a thorough skin prep and hand scrub
11. Which the following microorganisms most causes of osteomyelitis?
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. E. coli
12. What is a Surgical Safety Checklist (SSC)?
A. List of equipment that will be required during the surgery
B. A tool to reduce the risk of preventable complications during the
C. Tool to ensure that all staff in the practice are prepared for an emergency situation
D. Document listing all the roles of staff members in the operating theatre
13. Mary is admitted to the hospital with a possible diagnosis of appendicitis. On physical
examination, the nurse should be looking for tenderness on palpation at McBurney’s
point, which is located in the :
A. right lower quadrant
B. left lower quadrant
C. left upper quadrant
D. right upper quadrant
14. The first action that the nurse should take if she finds the client has an O2 saturation of
A. Elevate the head.
B. Recheck the O2 saturation in 30 minutes
C. Apply oxygen by mask.
D. Assess the heart rate.
Page 4 of 41
15. An 82 kg client has a 45% TBSA (Total Body Surface Area) burn. By Using Parkland
formula, how much fluids the nurse would give the client during the first eight hours after
a burn injury?
16. A patient is scheduled for an MRI of the pelvis. Which of the following actions would the
nurse take if during data collection it was revealed that the patient had had a previous
surgery for heart problem?
A. Ask if there is any metal in the patient body
B. Obtain an order for a chest x-ray
C. Cancel the MRI
D. Inform the physician
17. The nurse is caring for a patient immediately after a below knee amputation. Which of
these assessments should the nurse consider a priority?
A. Sacral edema
C. Stump dressings
D. Blood sugar level
18. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with flame burns to the entire chest,
abdomen, back, and upper extremities. Using the rule of Nines, What approximate
percentage of burns should the nurse document?
19. As soon as the patient enters the post anaesthetic care unit, the priority assessment by the
A. Airway patency and respiratory status
B. Urinary output
C. ECG monitoring
D. Level of consciousness
Page 5 of 41
20. The nurse is caring for a trauma patient who is hemorrhaging from a puncture wound.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse use to control the arterial
A. Pressure at the puncture site
B. Application of tourniquet
C. Pressure point massage
D. Pressure dressing
21. The nurse is assisting with data collection on a patient .Which of the following past
surgeries found in the patient’s history would alert the nurse to possible immune system
dysfunction when planning care?
22. McBurney tenderness is commonly found in patients experiencing which of the following
C. Acute pancreatitis
23. Hemorrhoid is defined as:
A. Malignant lesions in mucosa on the colon or rectum
B. The dilation of veins of the rectal area
C. Collection of pus in the area of the anus and rectum
D. Track that develops from the inner lining of the anus
24. The client presents with severe abdominal pain, blood stools a day, hematemesis and
dehydration. Because of these symptoms, the nurse should be alert for other problems
associated with what disease?
A. Peptic ulcer disease(PUD)
B. Chrohn,s disease
25. An objective indication of disease that is obvious to an observer is referred to as a:
Page 7 of 41
A. The process of pus production
B. A local collection of pus
C. The bodies first reaction to infection
D. Collection of blood under the mucosa
27. Inflammation is:
A. The bodies first reaction to injury
B. Irreversible damage to tissue leading to cell death
C. Reversible damage to cells leading to necrosis
D. The production of antibodies
28. What is the term that indicates the probability of recovery or likelihood of other health
29. Which of the following is most dangerous complication during induction of spinal
A. Cardiac arrest
D. Respiratory paralysis
30. Which of the following is experienced by the patient who is under general anesthesia?
A. The patient is unconscious
B. The patient is awake
C. The patient experiences slight pain
D. The patient experiences loss of sensation in the lower half of the body
31. What is the major risk factor for stroke?
C. High blood pressure
D. Family history of stroke
32. By using a high radio frequency electrical current, surgeon routinely use electro surgery
C. Cut and coagulate
Page 8 of 41
33. A 72-year-old man is scheduled for a procedure to repair his right hip fracture. He has a
history of smoking and diabetes, and is currently taking prednisone for his rheumatoid
arthritis. Based on this history, you would be concerned about which of the following:
A. Delayed wound healing
B. Postop pain control
C. Return to normothermia
D. Development of surgical site infection
34. In which phase of wound healing do hemostasis, phagocytosis and edema occur?
35. Which of the following components should be included in documentation the placement
of surgical drains?
A. Expiration date on sterile packaging
B. Location of drain
D. Serial number
36. Which of the following assessment data is most important to determine when caring for a
patient who has received spinal anesthesia?
A. The time of return of motion and sensation in the patient’s legs and toes
B. The character if the patient’s respiration
C. The patient’s level of consciousness
D. The amount of wound drainage
37. The patient had undergone spinal anesthesia for appendectomy. To prevent spinal
headache, the nurse should place the patient in which of the following positions?
B. Flat on bed for 6 to 8 hours
C. Prone position
D. Modified Trendelenburg position
38. Tick the main approach of peptic ulcer treatment:
A. Neutralization of gastric acid
B. Eradication of Helicobacter pylori
C. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion
D. All the above
Page 9 of 41
39. While examining a client with impaired vision, the nurse notices the clouding of the lens.
This client is having which eye disorder among the following?
B. Orbital cellulitis
40. To prevent blood loss and infection are aims of one among the different fractures listed
A. Upper arm fracture,
B. Spinal fracture,
C. Pelvic fracture,
D. Open fracture
41. As a result of fractured ribs the patient may develop:
C. Obstructive lung disease
D. Herniation of the diaphragm
42. The nurse is aware that the term bradycardia in adult person means:
A. a grossly irregular heartbeat
B. a heart rate of over 90 per minute
C. a heart rate of under 60 per minute
D. a heartbeat that has regular “skipped” beats
43. A nursing diagnosis represents the:
A. Proposed plan of care
B. Patient’s health problems
C. Assessment of patient’s data
D. Actual nursing intervention
44. Where temperature is regulated?
C. Heat & Cold
D. By what a person wear
45. The patient is admitted to rule out cardiac disease and is scheduled for a chest x-ray. He
asks you how a chest x-ray would help the physician examine his heart. The best
A. A chest x-ray is used to rule out that a fractured rib caused your pain.
B. A chest x-ray is used to detect the size and position of the heart. C.
The chest x-ray is an error. I’ll cancel the order.
D. All patients who are admitted must have a chest x-ray.
Page 10 of 41
46. The---------------artery located in the upper arm used to palpate to obtain a pulse during taking
B. femoral C.
brachial D. radial
47. The nurse is administering an intramuscular (IM) injection to a client. When the nurse
aspirates, there is a blood return. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A. Continue to administer the medication
B. Withdraw the needle, discard the medication, and start over
C. Withdraw the needle and administer in another site
D. Change the needle before administering the medication in another site
48. A patient is scheduled for vascular surgery .The patient is taking digoxin, furosemide
(Lasix), potassium and heparin. Which medication would be the nurse question the possible
need to stop several days before surgery?
49. Among the antifungal agents below one is indicated in case of treatment of the
A. Ketoconazole B.
50. Bioavailability of drug refers to:
A. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged
B. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose
C. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces
D. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites