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BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE MAJOR (LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS) 2018

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Licensure Examination for Teachers (LET) is a PRC-regulated exam with most number of examinees being administered by the Board of Professional Teachers (BPT). Passing the LET has never been easier. That's why I have so many materials to share to you. Lovelots! Just comment down. I'll give you the answer right away for a number.

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  • hello im glad i found this, but could you send me the answer key please. unomarlito11@gmail.com thanks in advance
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  • answer key pls.... angelkisscraze11@gmail.com thank you :)
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  • hello po pwede po ba mag request this questionnaire including answer key on my email: simoensimonjosh@gmail.com or nionesemer.1981@gmail.com. I'm reviewing Biological Science as my major this coming LET in march thank you po so much.
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  • hello po. may I request to send this questionnaire including the answer key on this email: leighparingit.0528@gmail.com. It will be of great help for my majorship review for the upcoming LET in March. Thanks!
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  • i will be taking the blept exam this march 2019, would like to have this reviewer and the answer key. my email is maryanntolibao49@gmail.com thank you in advance
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BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE MAJOR (LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS) 2018

  1. 1. BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES REVIEW THE NATURE OF SCIENCE/ ECOLOGY/ CELL & MOL BIO/ GENETICS Name: _________________________ Score: ______ DIRECTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only. 1. The statement “The worm is 2 centimeters long” is a(n) a. observation c. theory b. inference d. hypothesis 2. Which of the following properties or processes do we associate with living things? a. abiogenesis b. immutability c. irritability d. acellularity 3. In science, what is a theory? a. a temporary explanation to a scientific problem generated from observations b. well-tested explanation for a range of phenomena to make accurate predictions c. specific description of how aspects of the natural world are expected to behave d. a logical interpretation based on what scientists already know 4. What does a critical-minded person consistently do? a. Gathers and analyses evidence b. Critics the work of the group c. Observant about what happens d. Intellectually honest about the result 5. A teacher wants to show the movement of animals in his lesson. What should he use? a. Herbarium and taxidermy b. Terrarium and herbarium c. Terrarium and taxidermy d. Aquarium and terrarium 6. Which of the following statements about a fair test is true? a. All the variables must be kept in the same condition. b. Only one variable is tested at a time. c. Everything can be studied by setting up a controlled experiment. d. Controlled experiments cannot be performed on living things. 7. Which of the following sequence is a correct representation of the hierarchy of biological organization from least to most complex? a. organelle of a stomach cell, digestive system, large intestine, small intestine, intestinal tissue, organism b. organelle of an intestinal cell, digestive system, small intestine, large intestine, intestinal tissue, organism c. molecule, intestinal cell organelle, intestinal cell, intestinal tissue, digestive system, organism d. molecule, small intestine, large intestine, intestinal tissue, digestive system, organism 8. Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is not correct? a. Prokaryotic cells lack a membrane-bound nucleus. b. Prokaryotic cells differentiate its genetic material inside a nuclear envelope. c. Eukaryotic cells contain a membrane-bound nucleus. d. DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is present in both prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells. 9. Which branch of biology is concerned with the evolutionary history of organisms? a. embryology b. cladogram c. taxonomy d. phylogeny 10. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes generally have which of the following features in common? a. a membrane-bounded nucleus b. a cell wall made of cellulose c. ribosomes d. flagella or cilia that contain microtubules 11. Species that are in the same __________ are more closely related than species that are only in the same __________. a. phylum; class b. family; order c. class; order d. family; genus 12. In a controlled experiment, which is the condition being introduced and whose effect is being observed? a. Conclusion formulated b. Manipulated variable c. Responding variable d. Controlled variable 13. What makes a water molecule polar? a. Water has the ability to be frozen and thawed. b. Water is most dense at four degrees Celsius. c. A water molecule has slight charges on each end. d. Hydrogen is more electronegative than oxygen. 14. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental tenet of the cell theory? a. Cells arise only from previously existing cells. b. Cells are the basic unit of structure for all living organisms. c. All living organisms have genetic material. d. All living organisms are composed of one or more cells. 15. Which type of cell would probably provide the best opportunity to study lysosomes? a. Mesophyll c. Erythrocytes b. Plateles d. Leukocytes
  2. 2. 16. What type of asexual reproduction occurs when a new organism develops from an outgrowth as exemplified by corals? a. Fission c. Budding b. Sexual reproduction d. Fertilization 17. Which refers to the ability of an organism to keep its internal environment stable, even when external conditions change dramatically? a. irritability c. adaptation b. homeostasis d. evolution 18. Which statement is true about measurements? a. All measurements are always accurate and precise regardless of the tools used. b. All measurements are the same when similar measuring tools are used. c. All accurate measurements are also precise measurements. d. All precise measurements are also accurate measurements. 19. Which of the following is not true about science and technology? a. Science taught man the relationship of living things with their environment. b. Technology can provide all the solutions to the problems of the society. c. Science is an organized knowledge about the environment. d. Technology helps improve man's life 20. Which illustrates adhesion resulting to capillary action? a. Surface tension keeps water striders above water. b. A needle does not sink when carefully placed on a glass of water. c. Water is drawn out of the roots and up into stems and leaves of plants. d. Sea breeze is produced in a beach during the day because land heats up first. 21. About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 96% of living matter? a. carbon, sodium, chlorine, nitrogen b. carbon, sulfur, phosphorus, hydrogen c. oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium d. carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen 22. Each element is unique and different from other elements because of the number of protons in the nuclei of its atoms. Which of the following indicates the number of protons in an atom’s nucleus? a. atomic mass b. atomic weight c. atomic number d. mass weight 23. Calcium has an atomic number of 20 and an atomic mass of 40. Therefore, a calcium atom must have a. 20 protons. b. 20 neutrons. c. 40 electrons. d. A and B only 24. What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds? a. Covalent bonds involve the sharing of protons between atoms, and ionic bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms. b. Covalent bonds involve the sharing of neutrons between atoms, and ionic bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms. c. Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms, and ionic bonds involve the electrical attraction between atoms. d. Covalent bonds involve the sharing of protons between atoms, and ionic bonds involve the sharing of neutrons between atoms. 25. An example of a hydrogen bond is the bond between a. C and H in methane (CH4). b. the H of one water molecule and the O of another water molecule. c. Na + and Cl - in salt. d. the two hydrogen atoms in a molecule of hydrogen gas (H2) 26. Which of the following statements is true about buffer solutions? a. They maintain a constant pH when bases are added to them but not when acids are added to them. b. They maintain a constant pH when acids are added to them but not when bases are added to them. c. They maintain a constant pH of exactly 7 in all living cells and biological fluids. d. They maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids or bases are added to them. 27. Many mammals control their body temperature by sweating. Which property of water is most directly responsible for the ability of sweat to lower body temperature? a. water’s change in density when it condenses b. water’s ability to dissolve molecules in the air c. the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds d. the absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds 28. Which of the following is not a polymer? a. glucose b. starch c. cellulose d. chitin 29. Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified? a. as a pentose b. as a hexose c. as a monosaccharide d. as a disaccharide 30. The element nitrogen is present in all of the following except a. proteins. b. nucleic acids. c. amino acids.
  3. 3. d. DNA. 31. An enzyme speeds up a reaction by a. lowering the activation energy. b. raising the activation energy. c. releasing energy. d. absorbing energy. 32. Which of the following is NOT an organic molecule found in living organisms? a. protein b. nucleic acid c. water d. lipid 33. In which of the following ways do isotopes of the same element differ? a. in number of neutrons only b. in number of protons only c. in numbers of neutrons and protons d. in number of neutrons and in mass 34. Primary producers are organisms that a. rely on other organisms for their energy and food supply. b. consume plant and animal remains and other dead matter. c. use energy they take in from the environment to convert inorganic molecules into complex organic molecules. d. obtain energy by eating only plants. 35. Nutrients move through an ecosystem in a. biogeochemical cycles. b. water cycles. c. energy pyramids. d. ecological pyramids. 36. Which of the following is not true about matter in the biosphere? a. Matter is recycled in the biosphere. b. Biogeochemical cycles transform and reuse molecules. c. The total amount of matter decreases over time. d. Water and nutrients pass between organisms and the environment. 37. Which is a source of energy for Earth’s living things? a. wind energy only b. sunlight only c. wind energy and sunlight d. sunlight and chemical energy 38. Which of the following is considered as a primary producer? a. phytoplankton b. zooplanktons c. an amoeboid d. an earthworm 39. The factor that generally has the greatest effect on determining a region’s climate is its a. the region’s longitude. b. abundant plant species. c. distance from the equator. d. presence of a nearby river 40. If a newly introduced species fills a niche that is normally occupied by a native species, the two species compete. One of the species may die out as a result of a. competitive exclusion. b. invasion. c. extreme predation. d. outliving. 41. Photosynthetic algae are most likely to be found in a. the open-ocean benthic zone. b. the aphotic zone. c. the photic zone. d. ocean trenches 42. The water in an estuary is a. salt water only. b. poor in nutrients. c. fresh water only. d. brackish water. 43. The area inhabited by a population is known as its a. growth rate. b. geographic range. c. age structure. d. population density. 44. In ecology, the movement of individuals into an area is called a. immigration. b. emigration. c. mass exodus. d. population density. 45. A tiger that hunted and ate deer is an example of ______ and ______ respectively. a. carnivore; omnivore b. commensal; herbivore c. predator; prey d. herbivore; carnivore 46. One example of density-independent limiting factor is: a. hurricanes c. competition b. disease d. predation 47. Demographic methods are now applied by ecologist in studying a particular area. What do they analyse to determine population size? a. Life table records of birth and death b. Survivorship pattern in a particular environment c. Patterns of reproduction in an ecosystem d. Patterns of birth and death in a population 48. Permafrost characterizes the biome called: a. taiga c. deciduous forest b. chaparral d. tundra 49. Which of the following criterion is used to distinguish between two species? a. Reproduction b. Physical traits c. Time d. Geography 50. A mango tree is planted beside a sampaguita plant in a garden. They demonstrate the following relationship a. Commensalism b. Amensalism c. Mutualism d. Predation 51. Which best describes the climax stage of an ecological succession? a. It changes rapidly form season to season b. Represents initial phases of evolution c. It persists until drastic changes occurs d. It is composed mostly by tertiary consumers
  4. 4. 52. Which pair of terms will most likely apply to the same organism? a. Producer, predator b. Autotroph, parasite c. Heterotroph, autotroph d. Heterotroph, herbivore 53. What is the major role of decomposer in an ecosystem? a. Act as pollutants b. Recycle nutrients c. Make the soil fertile d. Clean the environment 54. Which is true about the phosphorus cycle? a. Phosphate is released in rocks through weathering. b. Plants and animals absorb phosphate from atmosphere. c. Phosphorus is abundant in the atmosphere. d. Organic phosphate cannot move through food webs. 55. The maximum rate at which a certain species reproduces is its a. growth rate b. liming factors c. biotic potential d. carrying capacity 56. Which is false about changes caused by density- independent factors. a. Most populations can adapt to a certain amount of change. b. Periodic droughts can affect entire populations of grasses. c. Populations never build up again after a crash in population size. d. Major upsets in an ecosystem can lead to long- term declines in certain populations. 57. Which of the following statements best describes human population growth? a. The growth rate has remained constant over time. b. Growth continues to increase at the same rate. c. Growth has been exponential in the last few hundred years. d. Birthrate equals death rate. 58. The concept of using natural resources at a rate that does not deplete them is called a. conservation. b. sustainable development. c. reforestation. d. successful use. 59. Nuclear wastes pose problems to the environment. Why is it difficult to dispose high-level nuclear wastes? They a. have short half-lives b. have long half-lives c. are large and bulky d. emit light 60. The total impact a person has on the biosphere can be represented by his or her a. contribution to climate change. b. ecological footprint. c. consumption of fossil fuel. d. production of carbon dioxide. 61. Which of the following is not a direct effect of deforestation? a. decreased productivity of the ecosystem b. soil erosion c. biological magnification d. habitat destruction 62. Which level of measurement has a true zero? a. Ratio b. Interval c. Nominal d. Ordinal 63. The number of fishes died in a fish kill in a pond is what kind of variable in biostatistics? a. Discrete b. Continuous c. Ordinal d. Ratio 64. Ozone depletion in the atmosphere has been caused by a. monoculture. b. CFCs. c. biological magnification. d. soil erosion. 65. The main energy foods are carbohydrates and a. Proteins b. Fats c. Vitamins d. Minerals 66. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin? a. vitamin A b. vitamin B12 c. vitamin C d. potassium 67. What is the substrate of salivary amylase? a. protein b. starch c. sucrose d. glucose 68. There are different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another? a. different carboxyl groups attached to an alpha (α) carbon b. different amino groups attached to an alpha (α) carbon c. different side chains (R groups) attached to an alpha (α) carbon d. different alpha (α) carbons 69. The organelles that break down lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins into small molecules that can be used by the cell are called a. vacuoles. b. lysosomes. c. ribosomes. d. microfilaments. 70. Which of the following statements is true? a. Both plants and animals perform photosynthesis. b. Only plants perform photosynthesis. c. Both plants and animals perform cell respiration. d. Only animals perform cell respiration. 71. Which is the bacterial structure that acts as a selective barrier, allowing nutrients to enter the cell and wastes to leave the cell?
  5. 5. a. plasma membrane b. capsule c. cell wall d. pili 72. A substance that moves by passive transport tends to move a. away from the area of equilibrium. b. away from the area where it is less concentrated. c. away from the area where it is more concentrated. d. toward the area where it is more concentrated. 73. The transport of sugar molecules into the cell is a form of a. bulk transport b. osmosis c. facilitated diffusion d. active transport 74. When yeast cells are deprived of oxygen, the cells resort to what process? a. Aerobic respiration b. Alcoholic fermentation c. Lactic acid fermentation d. Krebs cycle 75. Which of the following statements about the cell membrane is CORRECT? a. It prevents the exit of all materials from the cell. b. It has a rigid structure composed of cellulose. c. It is a two-layered structure composed of lipids and proteins. d. It is a fluid-filled organelle that surrounds the nucleolus. 76. How are mitochondria and chloroplasts similar to bacteria? They a. lack ribosomes. b. are larger than normal cells. c. are bounded by a single membrane. d. have a limited amount of genetic material. 77. Jams, jellies, preserves, honey, and other foodstuffs with a high sugar content hardly ever become contaminated by bacteria, even when the food containers are left open at room temperature. This is because bacteria that encounter such an environment a. undergo death by plasmolysis. b. are unable to metabolize the glucose or fructose, and thus starve to death. c. undergo death by lysis. d. are obligate anaerobes. 78. All of the following statements about glycolysis are true EXCEPT: a. Glycolysis can operate in the complete absence of O2. b. Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell. c. Glycolysis produces a net gain of 2 ATP and 2 NADPH. d. One glucose molecule yields 2 pyruvate molecules. 79. When muscle cells are deprived of oxygen, the cells resort to what process? a. lactic acid fermentation b. aerobic fermentation c. pyruvic acid oxidation d. alcoholic fermentation 80. Which of the following is true of ALL single-celled organisms? a. They are all prokaryotes. b. They are all bacteria. c. They all reproduce. d. They all have a nucleus. 81. The net gain of energy molecules from glycolysis is a. 4 ATP molecules. b. 2 ATP molecules. c. 8 ADP molecules. d. 3 pyruvic acid molecules. 82. The process carried out by yeast that causes bread dough to rise is a. alcoholic fermentation. b. lactic acid fermentation. c. cellular respiration. d. yeast mitosis. 83. What raw materials are needed for cellular respiration? a. glucose and carbon dioxide b. glucose and oxygen c. carbon dioxide and oxygen d. oxygen and lactic acid 84. Animal cells have all of the following EXCEPT a. mitochondria. b. chloroplasts. c. a nucleus. d. a cell membrane. 85. What is the maximum number of ATP produced by the electron transport chain of the mitochondrion? a. 36 b. 40 c. 38 d. 34 86. In addition to light and chlorophyll, photosynthesis requires a. water and oxygen. b. water and sugars. c. oxygen and carbon dioxide. d. water and carbon dioxide. 87. Which substance from the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis is a source of energy for the Calvin cycle? a. ADP c. H2O b. NADPH d. pyruvic acid 88. ATP synthase in the chloroplast membrane makes ATP, utilizing the energy of highly concentrated a. chlorophyll. c. hydrogen ions. b. electrons. d. NADPH 89. CAM plants are specialized to survive under what conditions that would harm most other kinds of plants? a. low temperatures c. hot, dry conditions b. excess water d. long day lengths 90. The color of light that is LEAST useful to a plant during photosynthesis is a. red. c. green. b. blue. d. violet. 91. The first step in photosynthesis is the a. synthesis of water. b. production of oxygen. c. breakdown of carbon dioxide. d. absorption of light energy. 92. In a typical plant, all of the following factors are necessary for photosynthesis EXCEPT a. chlorophyll. c. light.
  6. 6. b. oxygen. d. water. 93. How many oxygen (O2) molecules are required each time a molecule of glucose is completely oxidized via aerobic respiration? a. Twelve c. Six b. Four d. Two 94. The electron transport chain uses the high-energy electrons from the Krebs cycle to a. produce glucose. b. move H + ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane. c. convert acetyl-CoA to citric acid. d. convert glucose to pyruvic acid. 95. The human body can use all of the following as energy sources EXCEPT a. ATP in muscles. b. glycolysis. c. lactic acid fermentation. d. alcoholic fermentation. 96. The rate at which materials enter and leave the cell depends on the cell’s a. volume. c. speciation. b. weight. d. surface area 97. Sister chromatids are attached to each other at an area called the a. centriole. c. centromere. b. spindle. d. chromosome. 98. The timing in the cell cycle in eukaryotic cells is believed to be controlled by a group of closely related proteins known as a. flagellin. c. myosin. b. cyclins. d. penicillin. 99. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of asexual reproduction? a. simple and efficient b. produces large number of offspring quickly c. increases genetic diversity d. requires one parent 100. What enzyme is responsible for adding new nucleotides to a growing DNA chain in the lagging strand? a. RNA polymerase b. DNA polymerase c. Helicase d. SSB proteins 101. How many times can an enzyme amplify a reaction? a. Hundred folds b. Thousand folds c. Million folds d. Billion folds 102. Which of the following statements best summarizes the structural differences between DNA and RNA? a. RNA is a protein, whereas DNA is a nucleic acid. b. DNA is a protein, whereas RNA is a nucleic acid. c. DNA nucleotides contain a different sugar than RNA nucleotides. d. RNA is a double helix, but DNA is single- stranded. 103. Which is true about recessive genes? a. Will only have phenotypic expression if present as a homozygous genotype b. Have more superior phenotypic traits c. Should be paired with a dominant gene for it to be expressed d. Will prevent a dominant gene from expressing its phenotype 104. Which statement reflects the nature of eukaryotic DNA replication? a. DNA replication is said to be non-conservative b. Replication proceeds in only one direction c. DNA is translated to give rise to proteins d. Each new DNA molecule contains one old and one new strand 105. Pea plants were particularly well suited for use in Mendelʹs breeding experiments for all of the following reasons except a. peas show easily observed variations in a number of characters, such as pea shape and flower color. b. it is possible to control mating between different pea plants. c. it is possible to obtain large numbers of progeny from any given cross. d. peas have an unusually long generation time. 106. What does Law of Segregation mean? a. The pair of alleles segregates from each other when gametes are formed. b. Alleles for different genes segregate independently of each other. c. The inheritance of biological characteristics is determined by genes. d. Some alleles may be dominant and others may be recessive. 107. What is the difference between a monohybrid cross and a dihybrid cross? a. A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents. b. A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio. c. A dihybrid cross involves two genes and a monohybrid only one. d. A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for two generations. 108. A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and homozygous white-flowered pea plants results in offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates a. a dihybrid cross b. true-breeding. c. dominance. d. the blending model of genetics. 109. The F1 offspring of Mendelʹs classic pea cross always looked like one of the two parental varieties because a. one phenotype was completely dominant over another. b. each allele affected phenotypic expression. c. the traits blended together during fertilization. d. no genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype. 110. What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew from his experiments with pea plants?
  7. 7. a. He named the trait-producing substance in peas as genes. b. Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the results of ʺblending”. c. Recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1 than do dominant ones. d. Genes are composed of DNA. 111. How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE? a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 d. 3 112. Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. This suggests a. that the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits. b. incomplete dominance. c. that a blending of traits has occurred. d. that the parents were both heterozygous. 113. When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% 114. Which proportion, more or less, follows the phenotype of Mendel’s F2 offspring? a. 225 Tall : 220 Short c. 100 Tall : 200 Short b. 750 Tall : 250 Short d. 500 Tall : 500 Short 115. Which describes the ABO blood group system? a. Multiple alleles c. Polygenic traits b. Epistasis d. Incomplete dominance 116. A woman has six sons. The chance that her next child will be a daughter is a. 1. b. 0 c. 1/2 d. 1/7 117. Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a Mendelian disorder in the human population that is inherited as a recessive. Two normal parents have two children with CF. The probability of their next child being normal for this characteristic is which of the following? a. zero b. 1/2 c. 1/4 d. 3/4 118. Which will manifest as blood type of one of the children of a man who is a homozygote type A and a woman with a type O blood? a. Blood type B c. Blood type AB b. Blood type A d. Choices A and B 119. Which best describes this condition: “One trait with many factors controlling such trait”? a. Multiple alleles c. Polygenic condition b. Codominance d. Two-factor cross 120. Who was the first to describe the substance called nuclein and its component substances? a. Miescher c. Levene b. Griffith d. Avery 121. Bacteriophages are a. a species of bacteria. c. coils of DNA. b. proteins. d. viruses. 122. What happened to the mouse that was injected with heat- killed pathogenic strain of pneumonia bacteria in the experiment of bacterial transformation? a. Mouse died c. Mouse lived b. Mouse passed out d. Mouse transformed 123. When a bacteriophage attaches to a bacterium, what does it do to the host bacterium? a. It hijacks the bacterium’s cell machinery b. It injects its genetic material into the host. c. It kills the bacterium later in its life cycle d. All of the choices. 124. All of the following conclusions about the DNA are correct EXCEPT a. DNA is the structural component that is responsible for heredity. b. The order of nucleotides in a DNA is fixed and repetitive. c. The sugar in the DNA is a five-carbon sugar called deoxyribose. d. Thymine and Cytosine are under pyrimidine kind of Nitrogenous bases. 125. What did Levene call the nucleic acid with a sugar that lacks one oxygen molecule? a. DNA c. RNA b. Purine d. Thymine 126. What is the basic unit of a nucleic acid? a. sugar c. deoxyribose b. DNA d. nucleotide 127. Who proved the experiment of Griffith but with the use of DNA and protein? a. Miescher c. Levene b. Hershey-Chase d. Avery’s team 128. Which of the following is/are the role of DNA in heredity? a. store information b. copy information c. transmit information d. all of the above 129. What did Hershey and Chase use to mark the bacteriophage’s DNA and protein coat? a. powdered elements c. pathogenic strain b. radioactive isotopes d. all of the above Use the space below for the following genetic problems. The ability to roll the tongue is dominant over the inability to do so in humans. 130. If two heterozygous parents have offspring, what genotypes could their children have? (3pts) 131. What percentage of their offspring will have the ability to roll the tongue? 132. A plant has a genotype BbCcDD for a particular trait. Assume independent assortment. During meiosis, what is the probability of producing a gamete with BcD genotype? 133. What is the basic unit of nucleic acids? a. Amino acids c. Polypeptide b. Nucleotide d. Nitrogenous base 134. Which is NOT a component of a nucleotide? a. Polymerase c. 5-Carbon sugar
  8. 8. b. Phosphate group d. Nitrogenous base 135. Which type of bond connects one nucleotide to another in a strand? a. Hydrogen bond c. Ionic bond b. Covalent bond d. All of the above 136. RNA is a nucleic acid which does not contain a. Adenine c. Uracil b. Thymine d. Thiamine 137. Which is/are true about the Nitrogenous bases in nucleic acids? a. These bases have a chemical structure that makes them especially good at absorbing ultraviolet light. b. The complementary base pairing in the DNA follows A with C and T with G. c. These bases by nature are slightly acidic. d. All of the above. 138. Which correctly describes the work of Rosalind Franklin? a. She used X-ray diffraction to get information about the DNA structure. b. She described the structure of the DNA as antiparallel double helix. c. She cooperated with Watson and Crick to come up with the generally accepted model of the DNA. d. She subjected the DNA specimen in UV rays and presented the double-helix model of the DNA. 139. Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be Adenine? a. 38% b. 24% c. 12% d. 76% 140. What is meant by the description ”antiparallel” regarding the strands that make up the DNA? a. The DNA is twisted in a spiral way. b. The direction of one strand runs counter to the other. c. Base pairing goes with pyrimidine and purine bases. d. The strands never meet even if extended throughout. 141. The bonds that hold the two strands of DNA together come from a. the attraction of phosphate groups for each other. b. strong bonds between nitrogenous bases and the sugar-phosphate backbone. c. weak hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases. d. carbon-to-carbon bonds in the sugar portion of the nucleotides. 142. The human genome consists of approximately how many DNA base pairs? a. 30,000 c. 300,000,000 b. 3,000,000 d. 3,000,000,000 143. Which of the following is FALSE about the prokaryotic DNA and/or its replication? a. Bacterial DNA is circular. b. Prokaryotes have fewer DNA than a human being. c. Bacterial DNA replication can proceed in two directions from a single point. d. Prokaryotic DNA strands are not assembled into chromosomes. 144. Which is true about transcription? a. Transcription happens inside the nucleus. b. tRNA carries specific amino acid to the ribosomes. c. The process stops when one of the three stop codons is encountered. d. All of the above. 145. If the DNA strand contains the sequence TACGGATCT, what is the resulting mRNA sequence after transcription? a. TACGGATCT c. ATGCCTAGA b. AUGCCUAGA d. TUGCCTUATA 146. What is the shape of the tRNA? a. single straight strand c. clover-leaf shape b. spade-shaped d. burger-like shape For items 145-149, choose what is being described from the choices below. a. DNA c. mRNA b. tRNA d. rRNA 147. It transcribes the information on the DNA. 148. It serves as the template for transcription. 149. It carries the specific amino acid that corresponds to the codon. 150. It constitutes the ribosomal subunits. 151. It carries the codon from transcription. 152. Which codon codes for methionine? a. UGA b. UAG c. AUG d. AGU 153. Which codon is the start codon? a. AUA b. UUA c. AUG d. GGC 154. Which codon terminates the process of protein synthesis? a. UAA b. UUA c. UGC d. UCA 155. Which complements the codon during translation by base pairing? a. anticodon c. ribosomes b. water d. proteins 156. What is a karyotype? a. The set of unique chromosomes after the two meiotic divisions b. A display of every pair of homologous chromosomes within a cell, organized according to size and shape c. The collection of all the chromosomes in a gamete arranged according to the mutation incurred d. Choices B and C 157. If a cell with 2N = 10 karyotype undergoes meiosis, how many chromosomes would each daughter cell have after? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 158. The human X and Y chromosomes a. are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike. b. are of approximately equal size and number of genes. c. are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names. d. include genes that determine an individual’s sex. 159. Which of the following is a diploid cell? a. Sperm cell c. Ovum b. Skin cell d. Pollen
  9. 9. 160. If a haploid cell contains 16 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would that same cell contain in its diploid state? a. 8 b. 16 c. 32 d. 48 161. Which does NOT describe one of the events of meiosis? a. In the human body, the meiotic division begins with a cell having 23 chromosomes. b. The genetic material DNA is duplicated during interphase, prior to meiotic division. c. In the human body, the meiotic process happens only in the reproductive organs. d. In the second meiotic stage, the cell skips the interphase replication of the DNA. 162. Which is true about anaphase II? a. Sister chromatids separate as they move near the poles of the spindle. b. Homologous pair line up in the equatorial plane held by microtubules. c. The spindle fiber attaches to the centromere of the chromosomes. d. Homologous pair separate towards opposite poles of the spindle. 163. How many chromatids are in a tetrad? a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 46 164. How many chromosomes are present in a human cheek cell? a. 23 b. 25 c. 43 d. 46 165. When does synapsis happen? a. Prophase I c. Prophase II b. G1 phase d. S phase 166. Which structure produces the spindle fibers? a. centrioles c. cytoplasm b. nucleus d. centromere 167. Which is the site of attachment of the spindle fibers? a. centromere c. nucleus b. histones d. cytoplasm 168. Meiosis is important because a. It doubles the number of chromosomes between generations b. It produces haploid gametes c. It replaces dead cells in adult organisms d. It produces fertilized egg or zygote 169. Reduction of oxygen which forms water occurs during a. photosynthesis. b. respiration. c. both photosynthesis and respiration. d. neither photosynthesis nor respiration. 170. Which type of protein binds the DNA molecule to produce the nucleosome structure? a. Histone b. Centromere c. Polymerase d. Chromatin 171. If you want to examine the whole set of chromosomes of an organism, which would be the best sample to refer to? a. its karyotype b. its sperm cells c. cells in Meiosis II d. All of the above 172. How many autosomes does a normal human being have? a. 23 b. 46 c. 44 d. None of the above 173. In a pedigree, which represents a normal female (or a female not affected by the trait)? a. Shaded square b. Unshaded square c. Shaded circle d. Unshaded circle 174. What is dubbed as one of the greatest human feats of exploration of the chromosomes that aimed to uncover the sequence and location of genes in our DNA? a. The Human Genome Project b. CRISPR c. Polymerase Chain Reaction d. The Nature-Nurture Concept 175. Taking advantage of naturally occurring variations in organisms to pass wanted traits on to future generations is called a. Selective breeding c. Inbreeding b. Mutation d. Natural selection 176. Where does glycolysis takes place? a. mitochondrial matrix b. mitochondrial outer membrane c. mitochondrial inner membrane d. cytoplasm 177. Which of the following characteristics is often genetically engineered into crop plants? a. Improved flavor c. More roots b. Thicker stems d. Resistance to pests 178. Dolly The Sheep is the first known successful case of a. evolution c. cloning b. GMO d. gene splicing 179. What is meant by “GMO”? a. Genes and Micro-engineered Organism b. Gene Molecular Orientation c. Genetically Modified Organism d. Genotypic Modification of Organs 180. The donor cell, in the case of Dolly, is taken from which part of the body of the donor sheep? a. egg cell c. udder b. stomach d. womb 181. Which refers to any alteration in the sequence of nucleotides that can be passed on to the next generation? a. mutation c. X-limited trait b. X-linked disease d. aneuploidy 182. The process by which one strain of bacterium is apparently changed into another strain is called a. transcription. c. duplication. b. transformation. d. replication. 183. The number of codons in the genetic code is a. 3. b. 4. c. 20. d. 64. 184. The number of essential amino acids found specified by the codon dictionary is _____. a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 20 185. If a DNA segment has 24 phosphodiester bonds on each strand, how many nucleotides are there?
  10. 10. a. 48 b. 47 c. 46 d. 24 186. A substance that can cause a change in the DNA code of an organism is called a a. toxin. b. nitrogenous base. c. mutagen. d. nucleotide. 187. If a large population of bacteria were to be growing on a surface and then one were to clean it with an antibacterial agent, what would likely be the effect on the gene pool? a. The surviving population would have less genetic variation. b. There will be no decrease on the population of bacteria. c. The bacterial population would dramatically increase in number. d. The new population of bacteria would diversify in species. 188. A female may have only one X chromosome instead of two, what is this condition known as? a. Turner’s syndrome c. Klinefelter syndrome b. Patau syndrome d. Tay-Sachs disease 189. My boyfriend has a twin sister. How would I properly describe them as twins? a. Monozygotic twins b. Identical twins c. Siamese twins d. Fraternal twins 190. The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that a. light microscopy provides for higher magnification than electron microscopy. b. light microscopy provides for higher resolving power than electron microscopy. c. light microscopy allows one to view dynamic processes in living cells. d. A and B 191. What is the highest total magnification of light microscopy? a. 40x b. 100x c. 400x d. 1,000x 192. Which is an example of a sex-linked trait? a. Pattern baldness b. Color-blindness c. Milk production d. Polydactyly 193. Which does NOT belong to the group? a. Sickle-cell anemia b. Tay-Sach’s disease c. Cystic fibrosis d. Huntington’s disease 194. If a trait is expressed only in one sex but not in the other, such trait is said to be a. Sex-linked b. Sex-limited c. Sex-influenced d. Autosomal 195. What is the chance that a boy would have hemophilia if his mother has the disease but his father is normal? a. 100% b. 75% c. 50% d. 0% 196. Which refers to a type of genetic drift describing the loss of the allelic variation that accompanies founding of a new population from a very small number of individuals? a. Bottleneck effect b. Founder effect c. Survival of the fittest d. Natural selection 197. Malaria is a disease caused by a a. gene mutation. b. defect in red blood cells. c. bacterium found in water. d. parasite carried by mosquitoes. 198. Which represents Hardy-Weinberg equation? a. p² + 2pq + q² = 1 c. KE = (mv2 ) / 2 b. A = ½(bh) d. W = mg Genes A, B, C, and D are located on the same chromosome. After calculating recombination frequencies, a student determines that these genes are separated by the following map units: C–D, 25 map units; A–B, 12 map units; B–D, 20 map units; A–C, 17 map units. 199. How many map units apart are genes A and D? a. 5 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12.5 200. Which gene map best reflects the student’s data?

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