1. Practice Questions for AMFI Test
1. A close-ended mutual fund has a fixed : c. on a stock exchange where the fund is
a. NAV listed
b. fund size d. to the agent through which he/she
c. rate of return subscribed to the units of the fund
d. number of distributors
9. The "load" charged to an investor in a mutual fund
2. The maximum load that a fund can charge is is
determined by the : a. entry fee
a. AMC b. cost of the paper on which the unit
b. SEBI certificates are printed
c. AMFI c. the fee the agent charges to the investor
d. distribution agents based on demand for the d. the expenses incurred by fund managers
fund for marketing a mutual fund scheme
3. The amount required to buy 100 units of a scheme 10. A mutual fund is owned by
having an entry load of 1.5% and NAV of Rs.20 is : a. the Govt. of India
a. Rs.2000 b. SEBI
b. Rs.2015 c. all its investors
c. Rs.1985 d. AMFI
d. Rs.2030
11. Units from an open-ended mutual fund are bought
4. A gilt fund is a special type of fund that invests : a. on a stock exchange
a. in very high quality equity only b. from the fund itself
b. in instruments issued by companies with a c. from AMFI
sound track record d. from a stock broker
c. in short-term securities
d. in government securities only 12. A mutual fund is not
a. owned jointly by all investors
5. Of the following fund types, the highest risk is b. a company that manages investment
associated with portfolios of high networth individuals
a. Balanced Funds c. a pool of funds used to purchase securities
b. Gilt Funds on behalf of investors
c. Equity Growth Funds d. a collective investment vehicle
d. Debt Funds
13. "Load" cannot be recovered
6. The NAV of a mutual fund: a. at the time of the investor's entry into the
a. is always constant fund
b. keeps going up at a steady rate b. as a fixed amount each year
c. fluctuates with market price movements c. at the time the investor exits the fund
d. cannot go down at all d. from the fund's distribution agent
7. An open-ended mutual fund is one that has: 14. The most important advantage of a money market
a. an option to invest in any kind of security mutual fund is
b. units available for sale and repurchase at a. quick capital appreciation
all times b. high regular income
c. an upper limit on its NAV c. safety of principal
d. a fixed fund size d. no loads
8. An investor in a close-ended mutual fund can get 15. Some close-ended funds are quoted at a discount
his/her money back by selling his/her units: to their NAV because
a. back to the fund a. of high expense ratios
b. to a special trust at NAV b. investors do not expect the current NAV
to be sustained in future

2. c. the repurchase price fixed by the fund in b. gilt funds
lower than the NAV c. growth funds
d. of the inherent risk involved in investing in d. balanced funds
such type of funds
24. A Systematic Withdrawal Plan, allows investors
16. The NAV of each scheme should be updated on to get back the principal amounts invested in addition
AMFI's website to the income on investment
a. every quarter a. True
b. every month b. False
c. every hour
d. every day 25. Which of the following is untrue of an automatic
reinvestment plan?
17. Debt funds target a. The plan allows for automatic reinvestment
a. low risk and stable income of all income and capital gains
b. protection of principal b. Automatic reinvestment allows for
c. high growth with risk accumulation of additional units of the fund
d. long term capital appreciation c. The major benefit of automatic reinvestment
is compounding
18. In which of the following do debt funds not invest d. The benefit of automatic reinvestment is
a. government debt instruments often lost on account of the heavy load
b. corporate paper charge on the reinvestment
c. financial institutions' bonds
d. equity of private companies 26. Constraints imposed by most funds on check
writing are:
19. Which of the following risks do not affect a debt a. Account balance should not fall below the
fund minimum capital required
a. default by issuer on payment of interest or b. Checks issued must be for at least the
principal minimum amount specified.
b. price fluctuations of the debt securities c. Number of checks per month must not
c. share price movements exceed a specified number
d. interest volatility d. Both a & b above
20. Assured return or guaranteed monthly income 27. The performance of a fund is largely measured by
plans are essentially the success of
a. Hybrid funds a. the marketing function
b. Growth Funds b. the operations function
c. Debt/Income funds c. the portfolio market function
d. Sector funds d. none of the above
21. A Fixed Term Plan Series is 28. Generally invest in
a. an open-ended fund a. unlisted
b. a close-ended fund b. market-traded
c. a fixed term bank deposit c. thinly traded
d. a fixed term corporate bond d. privately placed
22. NAVs of equity funds are not affected by 29. Which of the following is not an equity
a. Stock market movements instrument
b. Events affecting the industry/sector in which a. preference shares
the fund has invested b. equity warrants
c. Happenings in the companies in which the c. ordinary debentures
fund has invested d. convertible debentures
d. real estate prices
30. The drawback of an ordinary share is
23. The greatest potential for growth in capital is A. possibility of capital appreciation
offered by B. ownership privilege of the company
a. debt funds C. guaranteed dividend income

3. D. no guaranteed income or security
38. Dividend yield for a stock is
31. An owner of preference shares is given which of a. dividend per share
the following rights b. dividend per face value
a. voting rights c. dividend per share to current market
b. fixed dividend income from post-tax price
profits d. none of the above
c. voting rights and unlimited dividend income
d. no guaranteed rights 39. Value stocks
a. have high current dividend yield
32. Market capitalisation of a company is calculated b. yield high growth in earnings
by multiplying the number of outstanding shares by c. are currently under valued
a. R.10 d. none of the above
b. Face value of each share
c. Current market value of each share 40. A better performance than the return on index is
d. dividend yield given by
a. passive fund manager
33. The Price/Earnings (P/E) Ratio is an important b. an active fund manager
measure of a company's anticipated performance. It is c. all fund managers
calculated using: d. non fund manager
a. Market price and dividend
b. Market price and earning per share 41. A change in key personnel especially the fund
c. Market capitalisation and dividend manager of an AMC does not necessitate a revision
d. Market price and face value of the offer document
a. True
34. A company whose earnings are strongly related to b. False
the state of economy is known as
a. Economy stocks 42. If fresh litigation cases or adjudication
b. Cyclical Stocks proceedings are referred by SEBI against the fund
c. Value Stocks sponsors or a company associated with the sponsors,
d. Growth stocks then the offer document needs to be revised
a. True
35. A Growth stock refers to shares of a company b. False
whose earnings are projected to grow at the normal
market rates 43. The offer document need not be revised if the
a. True management or the controlling interest in the AMC
b. False change
a. True
36. Which of the following is generally true for a b. False
growth stock?
a. steady capita appreciation and steady 44. An AMC cannot explain adverse variations
dividends yields between expense estimates for the scheme on offer
b. high capital appreciation and high dividend and actual expenses for past schemes in
yields a. financial newspapers
c. high capital appreciation but low b. business channels on TV
dividend yields c. the offer document
d. steady capital appreciation but high dividend d. AMFI newsletter
yields
45. Information on estimated expenses to be incurred
37. Shares of companies with large capital market by a scheme is not found in the offer document, but
capitalisation in brochures of the fund
a. have greater growth potential a. True
b. are more liquid b. False
c. are not available
d. none of the above 46. When comparing a fund's performance with that
of its peer group, the following cannot be compared

4. a. Two debt funds with 5 year maturities h. change with change in the AMC's key
b. A broad-based equity fund with an IT personnel
Sector Fund
c. A bond fund with a bond 54. The investment policies listed out in the offer
d. A government securities fund with a document of a fund do not include
government security e. the type of securities in which the scheme
will invest principally
47. An AMC must explain adverse variation between f. asset allocation pattern
expense estimates for the scheme on offer and actual g. policy of diversification
a. expenses for past schemes in h. the specific securities in which the fund
b. financial newspapers will invest
c. business channels on TV
d. offer document 55. If a scheme's name implies that it will invest
e. AMFI Newsletter primarily in a particular type of security or in certain
48. Information on estimated expenses to be incurred industry/sector, then it should invest at least the
by a scheme is not found in the offer document, but following percentage of its total assets in the
in brochures of the fund indicated type of security/industry/sector
a. True e. 100%
b. False f. 80%
49. The offer document and key information g. 65%
memorandum contain financial information for h. 40%
a. all schemes of all mutual funds in the capital
market 56. For assured return schemes, information about the
b. all schemes launched by the particular guarantor's net worth which justifies the guarantor's
fund during the last 3 fiscal years ability to meet any shortfalls in the returns assured
c. none of the schemes under the scheme can be found in
d. companies in which investment is proposed e. the offer document
50. The functions and responsibilities of the sponsor, f. the key information memorandum
AMC, trustees and custodian of the mutual fund are g. both (a) and (b)
listed in h. none of the above
a. offer document only
b. key information memorandum 57. The names and background of key personnel of
c. both offer document and key information the AMC
memorandum e. need not be disclosed to investors
d. none of the above f. are of no relevance as they may change
51. Information about trusteeship fees is included in g. are disclosed in the offer document
the offer document but not in the key information h. are declared in newspaper advertisements
memorandum
e. True 58. The minimum amount to be raised, and the
f. False maximum target amount
e. are not known before the offer is concluded
52. The following information about the constitution f. can be decided based on investor response to
of the mutual fund is found in both the offer the offer
document and key information memorandum g. are defined as per SEBI Regulations
e. activities of the sponsor before the offer is made
f. summary of trust deed provisions h. need not be disclosed in the offer document
g. name and addresses of the board of trustees
h. all of the above 59. The circumstances for refund of investment in the
initial offer and period within which refund must be
53. The investment objectives of the fund an investor carried out are not specified in the offer document,
selects for investment but only on the application
e. are of no relevance e. True
f. should be the same as his own investment f. False
objectives
g. change with market movements 60. Offer related information required to be listed in

5. the offer document and key information g. 25%
memorandum includes h. 10%
e. dates of opening, closing, earliest closing,
allotment and despatch of certificates 67. Mutual funds are allowed to borrow
f. procedure for transfer and transmission of e. freely to meet their requirements
units f. for investment purposes
g. both the above g. only to meet redemption demands
h. neither of the above h. not allowed at all
61. In the offer document, funds are required to make 68. As a part of borrowing policy, the following need
disclosures summarizing associate transactions and not be disclosed in an offer document
their impact on the performance of the scheme for the e. purpose and circumstances of borrowing
last f. regulatory limits on borrowing
e. one fiscal year g. potential risk to AMC and unit-holders
f. 2 fiscal years h. names of lenders
g. 3 fiscal years
h. 5 fiscal years 69. Valuation norms for non-traded securities should
be disclosed
62. The circumstances under which a scheme shall be e. at the end of every financial year
wound up are to be described in the offer document f. every quarter
at the time of the initial launch of the scheme itself g. in the offer document at the time of
e. True launch of the scheme
f. False h. should not be disclosed, being confidential
information
63. The following do not form a part of the
investment procedure described in an offer document 70. Procedure for redemption or repurchase need not
e. various plans under the scheme (e.g. e. be described in the offer document
dividend reinvestment plant) f. include how redemption or repurchase price
f. minimum initial (and subsequent) of units would be determined
investment g. include names of centres where redemption
g. details of who can invest can be effected
h. details of other competing mutual funds h. indicate the redemption or repurchase
price as at the end of the current fiscal
64. A scheme's policy on dividends and distribution year
e. is decided by the fund manager as per is
market outlook 71. The fund need not describe its accounting policies
f. can be changed to suit the requirements of in the offer document as these are of no use to an
the AMC investor
g. need not be consistent e. True
h. should be disclosed at the time of initial f. False
launch
72. The accounting policies of a fund should be in
65. SEBI restricts mutual fund investments in accordance with
companies forming part of the same group as the e. GAAP
AMC. This is: f. SEBI regulations
e. not true g. ICAI Guidelines
f. in the interest of investor protection h. American GAAP
g. applied only to some mutual funds, not all
h. not favourable to investors at all 73. Tax treatment of investments does not
e. form a section in the offer document
66. A disclosure should be made in the offer f. describe the tax elements applicable to
document if an AMC has invested more than the investors who invest in the fund
following percentage of its net assets in group g. form a section in the key information
companies memorandum
e. 50% h. offer tax advice to investors
f. 40%

6. g. if Ministry of Finance approves
74. Documents available to investors for inspection h. if AMFI approves
do not include
c. Memorandum and Articles of Association of 83. Who among the following are not Institutional
AMC Investors
d. consent of auditors and legal advisors e. Banks
e. investment management reports f. Resident Individuals
f. reports based on which actual g. Provident Funds
investments are made h. Non Banking Finance Companies
75. Investors' rights under a scheme are 84. It is compulsory to use fund agents/intermediaries
e. uniform for all schemes of all funds for investing MFs
f. not defined e. True
g. listed in the offer document f. False
h. available with stock exchanges
85. Generally, which category of investors need
76. The offer document for a scheme should describe advice for Investing in Mutual Funds
how the NAV of the scheme is to be computed c. Non Banking Finance Companies
e. True d. Insurance Companies
f. False e. Foreign Institutional Investors
f. Individuals
77. An offer document contains an AMC's investor
grievance's history for the past 86. Most eligible investors of Mutual Funds can
e. one fiscal year broadly be grouped into either individual or
f. 2 fiscal years institutional investors
g. 3 fiscal years e. True
h. six months f. False
78. Any pending cases or penalties levied on the 87. Commission rates or loads applicable to big
sponsors or AMC should be disclosed in the offer investors and small investors are
document e. same
e. True f. different
f. False g. not charges to either
h. none of the above
79. Who among the following are not eligible to
invest in MF 88. What document Mutual Fund distributors need to
e. Indian Companies refer for finding out eligible category of investors in a
f. Banks particular Mutual Fund Scheme
g. Non Banking Finance Companies e. SEBI Regulations Manual
h. Foreign Citizens f. AMFI booklet
g. Offer document
80. NRIs are eligible to invest in Mutual Funds h. RBI Guidelines
a. True
b. False 89. As per AMFI figures, how many agents
approximately, are there in India selling Mutual
81. The most important link between Mutual Fund Funds
and Investors is e. 50000
e. Government f. 100000
f. SEBI g. 75000
g. Fund distributors h. 150000
h. AMFI
90. Which Mutual Fund has majority of the agents
82. Are Overseas Corporate Bodies allowed to invest selling its Mutual Fund units in India
in Mutual Funds e. LIC Mutual Fund
e. No f. UTI Mutual Fund
f. Yes g. SBI Mutual Fund

7. h. None of the above
99. The front page of an offer document need not
91. Mutual Fund agents/distributors are not allowed cover
to sell Financial Products other than Mutual Funds e. opening, closing and earliest closing date of
c. True the offer
d. False f. disclaimer clause
g. legal and regulator compliance
92. Are Mutual Fund agents/distributors in India h. price of units
required to pass any examination to qualify to sell
Mutual Fund Units 100. A "glossary" of Defined Terms must be included
c. Yes, a test conducted by AMFI in the offer document
d. Yes, a test conducted by SEBI e. True
e. No f. False
f. a Post Graduate university course
93. How many major distributor Companies are there 101. Standard risk factors are not
in India selling Mutual Fund units g. market driven
c. approximately 9 h. common to all schemes
d. approximately 11 i. of relevance to novice investors
e. approximately 10 j. new to a regular investor
f. approximately 25
102. The risk of a scheme's NAV moving up or down
94. The offer document is not a legal document on the basis of capital market movements is a
e. True standard risk factor
f. False i. True
j. False
95. A copy of all changes in the offer document has
to be filed with SEBI 103. Past performance of a sponsor/AMC mutual
c. True fund is not indicative of the future performance of the
d. False scheme. This is
i. not true
96. The legal responsibility for the accuracy of the j. a standard risk factor for all schemes
statements made in the offer document lies with k. a scheme-specific risk factor
e. SEBI l. applicable only to gilt funds
f. the AMC
g. AMFI 104. Risk arising from a scheme's investment
h. the Company Law Board objective/strategy and proposed asset allocation is
i. not present
97. Though the offer document of a scheme is j. common to all schemes
prepared as per SEBI Regulations and is filed with k. specific to that scheme
SEBI, SEBI does not certify the accuracy or l. not applicable to debt funds
adequacy of the document
f. True 105. In an assured returns scheme, if assurance is
g. False only for a limited period, it must be stated in the offer
document that there is no guarantee for sustaining the
98. The following need not be covered in a Key assured return for the remaining duration of the
Information Memorandum scheme
c. Risk Factors i. True
d. Opening, Closing and earliest Closing Date j. False
of the offer
e. Disclaimer Clause 106. If the AMC is managing a fund for the first time,
f. Functions and responsibilities of the this information can be found in
sponsor, trustees, AMC and Custodian i. newspapers
responsibilities j. SEBI
k. AMFI Newsletter
l. Offer document

8. i. desirable marketing practices
107. A compliance officer j. agents' responsibilities to the investor
i. stands guarantee to the information k. ethical code of conduct
contained in the offer document l. all of the above
j. belongs to SEBI
k. cannot certify that the AMC's legal and 115. The following are not termed as "sales
procedural obligations are fulfilled practices"
l. cannot be appointed by the AMC i. agents commission
j. before-and after-sales service to investors
108. The due diligence certificate that must be k. advertising of schemes
submitted to SEBI along with the draft offer l. stock broking
document cannot be signed by
i. the managing director of the AMC 116. Sales practices are never mandated by
j. an executive director of the AMC regulators, but arise from convention only
k. the compliance officer i. True
l. Investor relations officer j. False
109. A due diligence certificate does not certify that 117. Agents are compensated by mutual funds
g. the draft offer document forwarded to SEBI i. through salaries
is in accordance with SEBI regulations j. through commissions
h. all legal requirements connected with k. through an annual fee
launching of the scheme have been complied l. not in cash but in kind
with
i. disclosures made in the offer document are 118. In India the minimum or maximum
true, fair and adequate commissions payable to distributors are not
j. the AMC guarantees a good performance prescribed by law, but are decided using the fund's
own discretion
110. In developed countries, an important Mutual i. True
Fund marketing channel is through j. False
i. Insurance Companies
j. Banks 119. Lowest commissions are paid on
k. Non-Banking Finance Companies i. Equity funds
l. Retail Distributors j. tax benefit schemes of mutual funds
k. debt funds
111. Emerging or new channel for l. long-term investments in mutual funds
distributors/marketing of Mutual Fund in India is
i. Insurance Companies 120. Excess distribution expenses are to be borne by
j. Banks the
k. Qualified Mutual Fund agents i. AMC
l. Direct Sales agents of respective mutual j. unit holders
funds k. SEBI
l. AMFI
112. Mutual Funds often use their own employees to
mobilise funds from 121. To cover fund distribution expenses, open ended
g. retail investors funds
h. High Networth individuals/institutional g. charge a fee from agents
investors h. charge entry and exit loads from investors
i. all investors i. create a reserve
j. foreign investors j. sell investments
113. Retail distribution channels are a critical 122. Trail commission means paying
element in the distribution of mutual funds in India i. no commission at all
i. True j. the entire commission up-front
j. False k. part of the commission up-front and the
balance in phases
114. "Sales Practices" cover the following areas l. the entire commission after five years

9. i. any price he chooses
123. Sub-brokers serve as agents of the principal j. a price determined by competition among
broker and a mutual fund is not answerable for their agents
activities k. a price based on demand for that fund's units
i. True l. the public offering price currently in
j. False effect
124. In India, Mutual fund agents' rate and services 132. All buy orders through an agent do not become
are at present defined by valid till the fund accepts and confirms the orders
g. SEBI rules i. True
h. stock exchange bye-laws j. False
i. AMFI rules
j. convention 133. When an agent purchases, offers or sells units,
ensuring compliance with applicable regulations is
125. Along with the application, it is mandatory to the responsibility of
distribute i. the fund
i. investment rebate j. the agent
j. offer document k. AMFI
k. key information memorandum l. SEBI
l. none of the above
134. The terms of appointment of a broker by a fund
126. To sell funds effectively, an agent need not are
g. be fully aware of the important g. laid down by SEBI
characteristics of the scheme h. laid down by AMFI
h. know his/her client's risk profile i. not uniform to all funds
i. give after sales service j. none of the above
j. offer large investment rebates
135. The code of ethics for mutual funds published
127. For investors to correctly compare performance by AMFI
of different funds SEBI's advertising codes include g. is mandatory
i. uniform computation of yields h. is in the form of recommended practices
j. uniform presentations of dividends i. is unfavourable to investors
k. identical time periods j. does not cover distribution and selling
l. all of the above practices
128. SEBI's advertising code mandate that all 136. The AMFI code of ethics does not cover the
performance calculations in a fund's advertisement following prescriptions
should be based g. Adequate disclosures should be made to the
g. NAV investors
h. the NSE Fifty Index h. Funds should be managed in accordance
i. the BSE Sensex with stated investment objectives
j. none of the above i. conflict of interest should be avoided in
dealings with directors or employees
129. An agent's appointment by a fund j. each investment decision should be
i. requires SEBI's approval approved by investors
j. is a lengthy and cumbersome process
k. is mandatorily preceded by an AMFI test 137. Distribution and sales practices are only partly
l. does not require any approval regulated by SEBI at present
i. True
130. An investor does not have recourse to his agent j. False
in case of errors, problems or the quality of the
investment 138. Which of the following distribution channels is
c. True preferred by private mutual funds
d. False i. Individual Agents
j. Small Distribution companies
131. An agent can offer and sell a funds's units at k. established distribution companies

10. l. the Internet
147. If a fund calculates NAV daily, it will include
139. Which of the following sales practices is all the transaction concluded up to
prescribed by regulation h. last week
i. AMFI Code of Ethics i. last two days
j. SEBI Advertising j. previous day
k. AMFI's Code for Agents k. today
l. None of the above
148. For a open-ended fund,the repurchase price
140. In a mutual fund investors' subscriptions are should not be lower than
accounted for as g. NAV
i. liabilities h. 95% of NAV
j. deposits i. 93% of NAV
k. unit capital j. 97% of NAV
l. none of the above
149. For a close-ended fund, the repurchase price
141. Investments made by a mutual fund on behalf of should not be lower than
investors are accounted as i. NAV
e. assets j. 95% of NAV
f. liabilities k. 93% of NAV
g. capital l. 97% of NAV
h. none of the above
150. For a scheme that has a load, the AMC can
142. Liabilities in the balance sheet of a mutual fund change an investment management fee not exceeding
are g. 1.50%
g. in the form of long-term loans h. 2.00%
h. strictly short term in nature i. 1.25%
i. combination of long term and short term j. 0.50%
j. not allowed as per regulations 151. Initial expenses of launching schemes should
not exceed
143. Net Asset Value (NAV) of a mutual fund k. 15% of amount received
scheme is defined as the schemes l. 10% of amount raised
g. assets minus liabilities m. 6% of amount raised
h. assets per unit n. 5% of the amount raised
i. assets minus liabilities per unit
j. none of the above 152. Which of the following expenses cannot be
charged to the scheme
144. The day on which NAV is calculated by a fund k. Audit fees
is known as l. costs related to investor communication
g. computation date m. winding costs for terminating the scheme
h. valuation date n. penalties and fines for infraction of laws
i. record date
j. book closure date 153. Which of the following are not true for Equity
Linked Savings Schemes?
145. A funds NAV is affected by m. Investors can claim an income tax rebate
e. Purchase and sale of investment securities n. There is a lock-in period before investment
f. valuation of all investment securities held can be withdrawn
g. units sold or redeemed o. There are not specific restrictions on
h. all of the above investment objectives for the fund managers
p. These funds cannot invest in equity
146. When computing NAV of fund SEBI requires
accrual of major expenses to be accounted 154. Which of the following is not true for Index
i. quarterly Funds
j. annually m. These funds invests in the shares that
k. on a day to day basis constitute a specific index
l. when actually paid

11. n. The investment in shares is in the same n. cannot appoint sub-agents or sub-brokers
proportion as in the index o. should be only individuals not companies or
o. These funds take only the overall market banks
risk p. should not be an employee or associate of
p. These funds are not diversified the AMC
155. The structure which is required to be followed 162. A transfer in the management of a close-ended
by mutual funds in India is laid down by scheme does not require the consent of
k. Financial Ministry k. unit holders with 75% voting rights
l. Securities & Exchange Board of India l. SEBI
(SEBI) m. Trustees
m. Fund Sponsor n. AMC
n. Association of Mutual Funds of India
(AMFI) 163. The fund sponsor has to contribute
k. nothing to the AMC
156. The Board of Trustees of a mutual fund: l. the total networth of the AMC
m. act as a protector of investors' interests m. atleast 40% of the AMC's networth
n. directly manage the portfolio of securities n. exactly 50%
o. do not have the right to dismiss the AMC
p. cannot supervise and direct the working of 164. The sponsor of a mutual fund may be compared
the AMC to
m. a director in a Company
157. The AMC of a mutual fund cannot n. the Chief Executive of a Company
m. undertake advisory services or financial o. Promoter of a Company
consulting p. an equity shareholder in a Company
n. cannot invest the funds in government paper
o. act as a trustee of more than one mutual 165. Issuing and redeeming units of a mutual fund is
fund the role
p. cannot invest the funds in securities m. the custodian
n. the transfer agent
158. The trust that manages a mutual fund is o. the trustees
appointed by p. the bankers
m. The Finance Ministry
n. R.B.I 166. The fund sponsors should have a sound financial
o. SEBI track record of
p. The sponsor of that mutual fund k. 7 years
l. 12 months
159. The custodian of a mutual fund: m. 5 years
k. is appointed for safekeeping of securities n. 3 years
l. need not be an entity independent of the
sponsors 167. The networth of an asset management company
m. not required to be registered with SEBI should be greater than
n. does not give or receive deliveries of m. Rs.100 Crores
physical securities n. can be decided by the Sponsor
o. should be atleast Rs. 10 Crores at all
160. Transfer Agents of a mutual fund are not times
responsible for p. should be greater than Rs.10 Crores
m. issuing and redeeming units of the mutual
fund 168. The AMC and directors are answerable to
n. updating investor records k. Stock Exchanges
o. preparing transfer documents l. The Board of Trustees
p. investing the funds in securities markets m. Agents and distributors
n. Stock Brokers
161. Distributors or agents
m. can distribute several mutual funds 169. The role of an AMC is to act as
simultaneously 1. promoters

12. 2. investment managers o. guidelines issued by the Ministry of
3. distribution agents Commerce
4. regulators p. Companies Act provisions relating to
transactions in securities
170. A change in the following key people does not
materially impact the performance of the fund 178. The entry of mutual funds in India was initiated
m. Fund sponsors by mutual funds set up by
n. Trustees of the fund k. Public Sector Banks
o. Fund Manager l. Private Sector mutual funds
p. Members of the AMFI Committee m. Unit Trust of India
n. mutual funds set up by insurance companies
171. To transfer the management of a scheme from
one AMC to another, the consent of the following is 179. For a close-ended scheme to change its
required fundamental attributes, it must obtain the consent of
k. SEBI m. 50% of unit holders
l. Unit holders n. 50% of trustees
m. both SEBI and unit holders o. 75% of unit holders
n. none of the above p. none of the above
172. As per SEBI's principles, the AMC and the 180. The largest corpus of investable funds in India is
Board of Trustees of a fund should belong to the with
same sponsors e. Bank-owned mutual funds
m. True f. Private Sector mutual funds
n. False g. UTI
h. Insurance Companies
173. After UTI, the first mutual funds were started by
k. private sector banks 181. The Board of Trustees of the UTI does not have
l. public sector banks nominees from
m. financial institutions m. RBI
n. non-banking finance companies n. LIC
o. IDBI
174. The highest authority among the following is the p. The Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
k. SEBI
l. Company Law Board 182. UTI Cannot provide
m. RBI k. corporate finance
n. Ministry of Finance l. engage in real estate and property
development business
175. The entity that SEBI does not regulate is m. provide merchant banking services
m. share registrars n. invest in securities
n. mutual funds
o. stock exchanges 183. The "Capital" of a scheme does not include
p. non-banking finance companies m. unit capital
n. reserves
176. The accounts and all other records of an AMC o. borrowing
are filed with p. networth of the AMC
k. AMFI
l. Registrar of Companies 184. Which of the following are Self Regulatory
m. Agents' Association Organisations
n. UTI k. Bombay Stock Exchange
l. SEBI
177. A close-ended scheme of a mutual fund is not m. AMFI
governed by n. RBI
m. Exchange Rules of the stock exchange
where it is listed 185. A Self Regulatory Organisation can regulate
n. Listing Agreement between the fund and the k. all entities in the market
stock exchange l. only its own members in a limited way

13. m. its own members with total jurisdiction l. only if the offer document specifically
n. no entity at all provided such a guarantee by a named
sponsor
186. The amount of authority enjoyed by a m. the Government of India
1. self-regulatory organisation is defined by n. AMFI
2. the apex regulatory authority
3. company law board 193. Unit-holders aggrieved by a Fund or AMC can
4. its own members get redressed from
5. RBI k. Consumer Courts
l. SEBI
187. The role of AMFI in the mutual funds industry m. AMFI
is not to n. RBI
k. promote the interests of the unit holders
l. set a Code of Ethics 194. If the Directors of an AMC commit fraud, Unit-
m. regulate mutual funds in holders investments' cannot be protected by the
n. crease public awareness of mutual funds in Department of Company Affairs and the Company
the country Law Board
k. True
188. The rights of investors in a mutual fund scheme l. False
are laid down in
m. the Offer Document of that scheme 195. The responsibilities of a unit-holder do not
n. Quarterly Reports include:
o. Annual Reports i. Monitor his investments carefully
p. marketing brochures j. being aware of information that affects his
investment in a major way
189. Unit holders of a mutual fund scheme do not k. carefully studying the offer document
have a right to l. taking decisions about where the fund
m. proportionate ownership of the scheme's managers should invest
assets
n. dividend declared for that scheme 196. UTIs scheme US-64 falls under the purview of
o. dividend declared for other schemes of the SEBI
mutual funds m. True
p. income declared under that scheme n. False
190. After dividend declaration, unit-holders are 197. UTI was set up by
entitled to receive dividend within l. SEBI
m. one week m. AMFI
n. one month n. A special act
o. 42 days o. RBI
p. six weeks
198. Bank owned Mutual Funds are supervised by
191. Unit holders' right to information does not k. SEBI
include l. RBI
i. obtaining from the trustees any information m. jointly by SEBI & RBI
having an adverse effect on their n. AMFI
investments
j. inspecting major documents of a fund 199. Investor does not have the right to receive any
k. receiving of a copy of the annual financial interest from an AMC if his redemption proceeds are
statements of that fund not despatched within 10 working days
l. approving investment decisions of the m. True
fund n. False
192. Shortfalls in the case of assured returns schemes 200. If an investor failed to claim his redemption
are met proceeds within 3 years, he can claim the proceeds at
k. by sponsors of such schemes k. Par
l. Prevailing NAV

14. m. the on the date he has applied for
redemption 208. SEBI does not require the following to be
n. 15% below the prevailing NAV included in the offer document issued by a mutual
201. After closure of the initial offer an open ended fund
scheme, on going sales and repurchases must start q. details of the Sponsor and the AMC
within r. Description of the Scheme & investment
o. One week objective/strategy
p. 30 days s. Investors' Rights and Services
q. 45 days t. Performance of other mutual funds
r. 180 days
209. 'Key Information Memorandum' is
202. For scheme to be able to change its fundamental o. an abridged version of the offer document
attributes, it must obtain the consent of p. the Memorandum & Articles of Association
o. 50% of the unit holders of the AMC
p. 50% of the trustees q. a sheet containing historical NAVs of other
q. 75% of the unit holders fund schemes
r. none of the above r. Annual Report of the AMC
203. The prospectus or Offer Document containing 210. The offer document for a scheme remains valid
the details of new scheme is first registered with the even if
q. AMFI q. the AMC is reconstituted
r. SEBI r. entry or exit load are changed
s. Bombay Stock Exchange s. the scheme's NAV changes
t. Ministry of Finance t. new plans are added to existing schemes
204. The offer document issued by mutual funds does 211. The offer document has to be fully revised and
not serve the purpose of updated
q. announcing the scheme q. every six months
r. giving detailed information about the r. once in two years
scheme s. every quarter
s. inviting the the investors t. every month
t. giving the fund manager's investment
outlook for the next quarter 212. An addendum giving details of material change
in the offer document should be circulated
205. The prospectus of a close-ended fund is issued o. distributors/brokers
o. every year p. unit holders
p. only once at the time of issue q. SEBI
q. every quarter r. all of the above
r. every six months
213. Which of the following is not true for offer
206. Fundamental attributes of scheme documents of open-ended schemes
q. do not include the objective of the scheme o. it is first issued at the time the scheme is
r. can be changed without the investor's launched
approval or knowledge p. it is registered with SEBI
s. include the terms of the scheme q. it has to be revised periodically
t. are not necessary for deciding whether to r. it need not be revised at all
invest in the scheme or not
214. All important disclosures that the mutual fund is
207. The offer document required to make, by regulation, are contained in the
q. contains the terms of issue offer document
r. gives no information relevant for making an q. True
investment decision r. False
s. is not the operating document describing the
scheme 215. The offer document issued when an open-ended
t. cannot be called a reference document scheme is launched is valid for all times, until
amended

15. q. True
r. False 225 A passive fund manager
q. researches stocks extensively
216 The most important source of information for a r. does not buy and sell stocks often
prospective investor is s. does not have to go through the process of
o. offer document stock selection
p. Annual Report of the AMC t. does not have to track stocks
q. Economic Times
r. AMFI Newsletter 226 A fund manager managing an index fund
o. has to keep fund expenses low
217 The offer document need not be studied by an p. does not have to research stocks
investor before investing in a scheme q. does not have to balance his portfolio
q. True r. none of the above
r. False
227 A growth manager looks for
218 The offer document is not a legal document q. high current income
o. True r. undervalued stocks
p. False s. above average earnings growth
t. none of the above
219 Initial issue expenses are charged to a scheme in
the first year itself 228 A value manager does not look for
m. True o. stocks that are currently undervalued in the
n. False market
p. stocks whose worth will be recognised by
220 Scheme-wise annual report of a mutual fund the market in the long term
need not be q. high current yield
q. sent to all unit-holders r. long term capital appreciation
r. forwarded to SEBI
s. published as an advertisement 229 From an investor's viewpoint, the most important
t. stock exchanges is
q. a fund's investment style
221 Mutual funds value their investments r. performance of the fund
o. at purchase price s. the fund manager's judgement
p. on a mark-to-market basis t. none of the above
q. at par
r. at book value 230 Fundamental analysis involves
i. checking the foundations of the company's
222 Investors are totally exempt from paying any tax factory building
on the dividend income they receive from mutual j. research into the operations and finances
funds of the company
o. True k. studying the company's share prices
p. False l. none of the above
223 Income distributed to unit-holders by a debt fund 231. Which of the following is not considered for
is liable to dividend distribution tax technical analysis
o. True q. historical data on the company's share price
p. False r. the company shares' trading volume
s. current market sentiment
224 A close-ended has average weekly net assets of t. the company's regulatory environment
Rs 200 crore.As per SEBI regulations, the AMC can
charge the fund with investment and advisory fees 232. Quantitative analysis is more likely to be done
upto: to evaluate a particular sector or industry rather than
o. Rs 2.25 crore any specific stock
p. Rs 2.00 crore o. True
q. Rs 2.50 crore p. False
r. Rs 3.00 crore

16. m. continuous tracking systems
233. Fundamental analysis forms the basis to decide n. equity analysts
q. when to buy a given share o. trustees
r. whether to buy a given share or not p. security dealers
s. whether to use technical analysis or
quantitative analysis 242. Security dealers of a mutual fund
t. whether the company's factory can o. guard the cabin of the fund manager
withstand earthquakes p. execute buy and sell orders for the fund
q. decide which shares to buy or sell
234. Technical analysis guides the decision on r. none of the above
o. whether to buy or sell
p. the right time to buy or sell 243. As per SEBI's requirements each scheme of a
q. whether company's technical personnel are mutual fund should have a different fund manager
adequately qualified o. True
r. none of the above p. False
235. Which of the following is not an investment 244. Debt securities bought at a discount to their face
philosophy value are generally
o. capitalising on economic cycles m. interest bearing
p. focusing on growth sectors n. zero coupon bonds
q. capitalisation o. paying interest at a floating rate
r. finding value stocks p. none of the above
236. When expecting a fall in market price, fund 245. In India, a large part of debt securities pay
managers can reduce the loss in portfolio value by interest on
k. speculating m. a floating rate basis
l. not buying and selling shares at all for some n. a fixed rate plus a variable portion
days o. a fixed rate
m. using equity derivatives p. zero coupon basis
n. giving TV interviews to improve sentiment
246. The Indian debt market is largely wholesale in
237. Equity derivative instruments are nature
o. shares o. True
p. bonds p. False
q. contracts
r. notes 247. In the wholesale debt market, the largest
proportion of trading is seen in
238. A futures contract allows one to buy or sell the 1. Government Securities
underlying shares, but need not result in delivery 2. Corporate Bonds
q. True 3. T-Bills
r. False 4. PSU Bonds
239. Derivatives cannot be based on market indices 248. The largest proportion of trades done in the
q. True wholesale debt market is accounted by
r. False o. mutual funds
p. foreign banks
240. In a mutual fund, the overall decisions on q. Indian banks
allocating money to particular industries/sectors are r. financial institutions
taken by
q. equity analysts 249. Certificates of Deposits (CDs) are issued by
r. fund managers o. Regional Rural Banks
s. security dealers p. Corporates
t. trustees q. Scheduled commercial banks
r. none of the above
241. Continuous tracking of the companies in which
a mutual fund has invested is done by 250. Commercial Paper is issued by Corporate bodies

17. o. to meet short-term working capital u. call out the names of the investors
requirements v. redeem the debt on maturity
p. to finance the acquisition of long term w. extend the tenure of the debt
capital assets x. redeem the debt before maturity
q. to retire long term debt
r. to pay dividend 259. A put provision in a debt issue allows
251. Government securities are issued through the 1. investor to put away the certificates in safe
RBI deposit vaults
s. True 2. investors to redeem debt prior to
t. False maturity
3. issuers to redeem debt prior to maturity
252. The yield on Treasury Bill (T-Bill) us 4. investors to extend the tenure of debt
determined by
s. the Government of India 260. Current yield relates interest on a security to
t. auction u. its current market price
u. the State Governments v. its face value
v. floating rate method w. its fair value
x. the current price of T-Bills
253. Which of the following are not normally found
in the portfolio of a debt fund 261. To compare bonds with different coupon rates,
u. long-dated Government Securities maturities and prices, investors would use:
v. Corporate debentures u. current yield
w. bonds issued by financial institutions v. technical analysis
x. certificates of deposit issued by banks w. yield to maturity
x. fundamental analysis
254. Which of the following do not represent the
amount an investor of a debt security will be paid 262. When interest rates rise, bond prices
upon maturity 1. also rise
u. par value 2. fall
v. face value 3. are not affected
w. fair value 4. fluctuate either up or down
x. redemption value
263. Yield curve is also known as
255. Coupon of a debt security refers to s. Curve of Interest
s. a piece of paper attached to the certificate t. Term Structure of Interest Rates
t. the return on investor would earn u. Curve that yields
u. the amount rate of interest paid on par v. none of the above
value of the bond
v. none of the above 264. An important indicator of expected trends in
interest rates is
256. Which of the following do not apply to the term s. The Economic Times
'maturity' of a debt security? t. the Sensex
u. the date on which the certificates becomes u. the Yield Curve
old v. the Chief Minister's Speech
v. the term of the bond
w. the date of redemption 265. It may not be possible to reinvest interest
x. the date on which the issuer has to repay the received at the same rate as principal. This is known
amount as
s. reinvestment risk
257. Call or put provisions are used to modify the t. inflation risk
fixed maturity of debt securities u. interest-rate risk
u. True v. call risk
v. False
266. A bond's rating indicates its
258. A call provision in a debt issue allows the issuer s. reinvestment risk
to t. default risk

18. u. inflation risk
v. interest-rate risk 275. Investment policies of a mutual fund are
determined by
267. If a bond cannot be sold at a price near its value, u. the fund manager
it means that investment in this bond has v. the AMC management
s. high liquidity risk w. the marketing department based on what
t. high default risk distributors want
u. low liquidity risk x. the investors
v. inflation risk
276. Which of the following measures are not taken
268. The additional yield required to account for the by SEBI for protecting investors of mutual funds
risk of default by the borrower is known as s. mandating minimum levels of
q. yield plus diversification for mutual funds
r. yield spread t. ensuring that the funds are not used to
s. yield extra favour a few companies
t. yield premium u. tracking the securities that each fund has
invested in
269. A high credit rating does not mean v. ensuring that the funds are invested in
o. high yield spread approved securities only
p. high perceived safety
q. low yield spread 277. As per SEBI norms, a fund's investments, in the
r. low risk premium equity shares of any one company are restricted to
u. 25% of NAV
270. If 10-year government securities Neil 10% and a v. 10% of NAV
10-Year fixed deposit in a company yields 12%, the w. 50% of NAV
yield spread is x. 100% of NAV
u. 12%
v. 22% 278. A mutual fund manager is not allowed to sell
w. 10% short when he expects a crash in the market
x. 2% s. True
t. False
271. The "duration" of an interest-bearing bond is
s. longer than its maturity 279. In a mutual fund, having many schemes, al
t. less than its maturity securities bought can be held in a general account and
u. equal to its maturity transferred later to various schemes to attain certain
v. the quality of paper used for the certificate profit or loss objectives
u. True
272. A bond with a coupon of 9% when interest rates v. False
for similar maturities are 11% will sell
q. above par 280. A mutual fund may invest in short-term deposits
r. below par of scheduled commercial banks
s. at par m. True
t. at a price unrelated to the prevailing interest n. False
rate
281. Mutual funds are allowed to lend
273. Changes in foreign exchange rates have no u. loans
bearing on interest rates v. securities
q. True w. physical assets
r. False x. none of the above
274. Inflation and interest rates are inversely 282. In case of listed securities of group companies
proportional of the sponsor, mutual fund is not allowed to invest
s. True q. 25% of its net assets
t. False r. 10% of its net assets
s. at all
t. >5% of net assets

19. 283. A mutual fund may transfer investments from 291. The difference between NAV change and total
one scheme to another return as measures of fund performance is
u. not at all q. none
v. at current market rates r. total return takes dividend into account
w. at cost price while NAV change does not
x. at a fixed premium over market rate s. total return does not take NAVs into account
t. total return does not take the time period
284. Interest Rate Risk for an Indian debt fund can be into account
reduced by using
s. Futures 292. The most suitable measure of fund performance
t. Options for all fund types is
u. Interest Rate Swaps s. NAV Change
v. none of the above t. Total Return
u. Total Return with reinvestment
285. The Interest Rate Forecasting Unit of a debt v. none of the above
fund is generally manned by
s. technicians 293. The expense ratio used for measuring fund
t. statisticians performance is an indicator of
u. economists & econometricians q. product market condition
v. accountants r. growth in the economy
s. prevalent market practices
286. AMCs need not maintain records in support of t. the fund's efficiency
each investment decision
o. True 294. The Expense Ratio as a measure of a fund's
p. False performance is defined by a fund's
q. total expenses and average net assets
287. When interest rates for similar maturities' bonds r. total expenses and total assets
are 11%, bond with a 9% coupon rate will sell s. average expenses and average net assets
s. above par t. none of the above
t. below par
u. at par 295. While computing the Expense Ratio for a fund,
v. at a price unrelated to the interest rates for brokerage commissions on the fund's transactions are
similar securities not included in the fund expenses
q. True
288. The most suitable measure for a fund's r. False
performance does not depend on the
s. type of fund 296. The Expense Ratio is not of utmost importance
t. investment objective of the fund in case of
u. financial market conditions q. Debt fund
v. amount invested by investor r. Index fund
s. Equity fund
289. If the NAV of an open-ended fund was Rs.16 at t. Bond fund
the beginning of the year and Rs.22 after 13 months,
the annualised change in NAV is 297. The Expense Ratio is not affected by
s. 6.0% p. fund size
t. 34.6% q. average account size
u. 40.6% r. portfolio composition
v. 37.5% s. stock market conditions
290. Change in NAV as a measure of fund 298. The Income Ratio as a measure of a fund's
performance is more suitable for performance is defined by the fund's
u. growth funds s. total income and total assets
v. income funds t. net investment income and net assets
w. funds with withdrawal plans u. total income and net assets
x. none of the above v. none of the above

20. x. 50% of net assets
299. The Income Ratio is more suitable for y. 25% of net assets
evaluating the performance of z. 20% of net assets
s. Equity Funds
t. Growth Funds 308. Which of the following is of no relevance in
u. Regular Income Funds evaluating a fund's performance
v. Index Funds y. The performance of the stock market as a
whole
300. Portfolio turnover rate of a fund measure the z. The performance of other mutual funds
s. size of the fund's portfolio aa. The returns given by other comparable
t. amount of buying and selling done by the financial products
fund bb. The change in wholesale price index
u. the average number of units sold by the fund
in one day 309. The choice of an appropriate benchmark for
v. none of the above evaluating a fund's performance depends on
301. A high turnover rate for a fund indicates s. the fund manager
u. high transaction costs t. the investment objective of the fund
v. greater efficiency u. SEBI
w. high returns to the investor v. AMFI
x. a rising market
310. An actively managed equity fund expects to
302. Turnover rates would be most relevant to y. be able to beat the benchmarks
analyse the performance of z. earn the same returns as the benchmark
w. equity funds aa. have no benchmarks
x. growth funds bb. underperform when compared with the
y. debt funds benchmark
z. value funds
311. For evaluating funds, the preferred benchmark
303. Transaction costs include would be the
y. all expenses related to trading y. BSE Sensex
z. all expenes charged to the fund z. S&P CNX Nifty
aa. distribution expenses aa. BSE 200
bb. none of the above bb. S&P CNX Sectoral Indices
304. Which of the following are not included in 312. To evaluate a close-ended debt-fund, a suitable
Transaction costs? benchmark would be
y. brokerage commissions s. BSE Sensex
z. stamp duty on transfers t. I-Sec's I-BEX
aa. custodians fees u. interest on bank fixed deposits of similar
bb. agent commissions maturity
v. S&P CNX Defty
305. Which of the following transaction costs are not
quantified in the offer document 313. When comparing performance of two funds, the
w. brokerage commissions following need not be similar
x. dealer spreads w. Risk profiles
y. custodian's fees x. Investment objectives
z. registrar's fees y. Fund size
z. Fund managers
306. The size of a fund has no bearing on its
performance 314. Which of the following is false?
y. True w. ROI is a measure similar to Total Return
z. False with Reinvestment of distribution
x. Total Return with Reinvestment of
307. As per SEBI, mutual funds can borrow for short distributions assumes reinvestment at NAV
term to the extent of on the distribution date
w. total net assets

21. y. As a measure of performance, Total Return z. none of the above
with Reinvestment of distribution seeks to
overcome the shortcomings of simple Total 322. Within an asset class, which individual security
Return to invest in should be decided by
z. Because of its simplicity, simple Total u. the financial planner
Return is preferred in practice to Total v. the investor himself
Return with Reinvestment of distribution w. a professional fund manager
x. an objective advisor
315. The basis of genuine investment advice should
be 323. Financial Planning comprises
1. the current market situation s. defining a client's profile and goals
2. the agent commissions paid by different t. recommending appropriate asset allocation
funds u. monitoring financial planning
3. financial planning to suit the investor's recommendations
situation v. all of the above
4. planning to complete the agent's annual
targets 324. Financial planning is relevant only for high
networth individuals
316. Financial goals do not include u. True
w. buying a home v. False
x. winning a sports gold medal
y. planning for retirement 325. Financial planning does work for older clients
z. saving for child's education y. True
z. False
317. Financial planning allows a person
w. to become a billionaire 326 Financial planning is primarily tax planning
x. to achieve financial goals through proper w. True
management of finances x. False
y. to invest in foreign countries
z. none of the above 327 In financial planning, all responsibility ends with
the financial planner and the client has no
318. Financial plans do not alter in any way the responsibilities
amount of tax an investor pays as the tax is on his y. True
income z. False
u. True
v. False 328 The constraint on financial planning due to
insufficient investable resources can be remedied to
319. Which of the following works with an investor some extent by
on his overall financial situation u. decreasing the standard of living
s. Tax Advisor v. disciplining children
t. Financial Planner w. disciplined monthly budgeting
u. Insurance Agent x. none of the above
v. Financial Advisor
329 In the growth option offered by mutual funds, the
320. A financial planner takes responsibility for the number of units held by an investor increases because
financial well-being of his/her clients of
y. True w. growth in net asset value i.e. capital
z. False appreciation
x. reinvestment of dividend which is like
321. Financial planners and their clients should focus compounding
on y. interest received on the fund's assets
w. allocating funds to asset classes (e.g. debt, z. none of the above
equity etc.)
x. allocating funds to individual securities 330 To maximise returns on investment, once an
y. tracking stocks which they feel have investor buys into a fund, he/she should hold on to it
potential no matter what happens

22. o. True
p. False 337. Which of the following entities can given loans
against securities
331 If an investor keeps investing a fixed amount at w. UTI
regular intervals, the average cost of his purchases x. Banks
will always be less than if he makes investment at y. Mutual funds
irregular periods z. none of the above
y. True
z. False 338. Which of the following investment products do
not give guarantee for return or capital
332. Which of the following lets an investor book w. Bank deposits
profits in a rising market and increase holdings in a x. Pubic provident fund (PPF)
falling market y. National Savings Certificates (NSC)
u. Fixed Rates of Asset Allocation z. Units of a mutual fund
v. Flexible Ratio of Asset Allocation
w. Investment without any asset allocation plan 339. The biggest advantage of investment in gold is
x. Buy and Hold Strategy w. High returns
x. High appreciation in value
333. A Flexible Ratio of Asset Allocation means y. Low Purchase price
y. continuously changing the ratio of various z. Hedge against inflation
assets in the portfolio
z. not doing any re-balancing and letting the 340. The biggest disadvantage of investment in real
profits run estate is
aa. active switching y. Less potential for capital appreciation
bb. none of the above z. High purchase price
aa. Depreciation in value as time passes
334. The strategy advisable for an investor to bb. Value gets eroded due to inflation
maximise investment return in the long run is
w. buy and hold on to investments for a long 341. Which of the following is not an advantage of
time bank deposits?
x. liquidate poorly performing investments u. Liquidity
from time to time v. High perceived safety
y. liquidate good performing investments fro w. Low entry price
time to time x. High yield after tax
z. switch from poor performers to good
performers 342. Listing of shares at a stock exchange ensures
w. guaranteed returns
335. A criticism of rupee-cost averaging is x. long term capital appreciation
w. Investment is for the same amount at regular y. low risk
intervals z. high liquidity
x. Over a period of time, the average purchase
price will work out higher than if one tries to 343. The rate of interest paid by a company on
guess the market highs and lows debentures issued by it depends on
y. It does not tell you when to buy, sell or u. the stock market situation
switch from one scheme to another v. SEBI guidelines
z. Rupee cost averaging has no serious w. the company's credit rating
shortcomings x. the amount of money being raised
336. In India, individual investors do not have direct 344. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
access to company fixed deposits
q. capital market instruments u. A higher rate of interest
r. real estate v. higher risk
s. bullion w. unfavourable effect of tax
t. money market instruments x. very high liquidity