OPS 571 Final Exam Version 1 Answers OPS 571 Final Exam Version 1 1) According to your text, the most common process metric is: A. Throughput time B. Efficiency C. Utilization D. Productivity 2) Which of the following is true about make-to-stock processes? A. Make-to-stock processes can be controlled based on the actual or anticipated amount of finished goods B. Make-to-stock process is used when demand is seasonal and the firm does not have enough C. Services by their very nature often use make-to-stock processes. D. A and B 3) ________ is when the activities in the stage must stop because there is no place to deposit the item just completed. A. None of these answers B. Blocking C. Starving D. Buffering 4) The type of processing structure that is used for producing discrete products at higher volume is: A. Batch B. Job Shop C. Assembly line D. Project 5) According to Hayes and Wheelwright, which of the following is not a major pro

1. OPS 571 Final Exam Version 1
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OPS 571 Final Exam Version 1 Answers
OPS 571 Final Exam Version 1
1) According to your text, the most common process metric is:
A. Throughput time
B. Efficiency

2. C. Utilization
D. Productivity
2) Which of the following is true about make-to-stock processes?
A. Make-to-
stock processes can be controlled based on the actual or anticipated amount of
finished goods
B. Make-to-
stock process is used when demand is seasonal and the firm does not have
enough
C. Services by their very nature often use make-to-stock processes.
D. A and B
3) ________ is when the activities in the stage must stop because there is no place
to
deposit the item just completed.
A. None of these answers
B. Blocking
C. Starving
D. Buffering
4) The type of processing structure that is used for producing discrete products at
higher volume is:
A. Batch

3. B. Job Shop
C. Assembly line
D. Project
5) According to Hayes and Wheelwright, which of the following is not a major
process flow structure?
A. Batch
B. Job Shop
C. Assembly Line
D. Project
6) The major decision variables in equipment selection are:
A. Flexibility
B. Labor requirements
C. Manufacturer
D. Both A and B
7) Quality Function Deployment:
A. is a tool for translating customer requirements into concrete operating and engin
eering
goals.
B. facilitates inter-functional cooperation between marketing, engineering, and

4. manufacturing.
C. provides a better understanding and focus on process characteristics that requir
e
improvements.
D both A and B
8) In which phase of new-product design process are considerations to target
market, desired level of performance, investment requirements and financial impact
made:
A. detailed engineering
B. concept development and product planning
C. preliminary process design
D. pilot manufacturing phase
9) When evaluating a new product development project using net present value
analysis, which of the following will make the project more attractive?
A. Delaying the start of the project
B. Making the project run over a longer period of time
C. Improving (bringing forward) the date when revenue will begin
D. A and B
10) Which of the following is not a dimension of design quality?

5. A. Durability
B. Features
C. Serviceability
D. Customization
11) The category given the maximum point value in the Baldrige award is:
A. Customer and market focus
B. Strategic planning
C. Business results
D. Process management
12) An example of prevention quality cost is:
A. Testing
B. Inspection
C. Train personnel
D. Rework
13) The type of processing structure that is used to produce gasoline, chemicals, a
nd
steel is:
A. Job Shop
B. Assembly Line
C. Continuous Flow

6. D. Batch
14) Which Quality Guru advocated that senior management is responsible for 94%
of
quality problems?
A. Ishikawa
B. Juran
C. Crosby
D. Deming
15) Which of the following is not an assumption of the basic economic-
order quantity
model
A. ordering or setup costs are constant
B. quantity discounts are available
C. annual demand is constant and known
D. lead time is constant
16) The assignment method is appropriate in solving problems that have the
following characteristics?
A. There are ‘n’ things to be distributed to ‘n’ destinations.
B. Though each destination may handle all the things, the final assignment has eac
h thing

7. assigned to one and only one destination.
C. Only one criterion should be used (minimum cost, maximum profit, for example).
D. A and C
17) The objective of work-center scheduling include
A. To meet due dates.
B. To minimize lead times.
C. To minimize finish goods inventory.
D. Both A and B.
18) The measure of the firm’s ability to make money according to Goldratt include:
A. Net profit.
B. Return on assets.
C. Cash flow.
D. Both A and C
19) Which of the following according to Goldratt is not a component of production
cycle time
A. Wait time
B. Maintenance time
C. Setup time
D. Process time

8. 20) Goldratt’s rule of production scheduling include all but:
A. An hour saved at a non-bottleneck is a marriage.
B. A process batch should be fixed both along its route and in time.
C. Do not balance the capacity-balance the flow.
D. Utilization and activation of a resource is not the same thing
21) According to Goldratt and Fox, a useful performance measure to treat inventory
is
A. Quick ratio.
B. Dollar days.
C. Inventory turnover.
D. Current ratio
22) “Slack” refers to the difference between:
A. finish and start times
B. latest and earliest times
C. observed and predicted times
D. optimistic and pessimistic times
23) Which of the following is not a typical project milestone?
A. Production of a prototype
B. Completion of design

9. C. Training of project members
D. Completed testing of the prototype
24) The advantages of pure project include all but:
A. Team pride, motivation, and commitments are high.
B. The project manager has full authority over the project.
C. Decisions are made quickly.
D. A team member can work on several projects
25) The idea of the Value Density calculation is:
A. Matching the weight of the product with an appropriate carrier
B. Finding a carrier that can handle the weight
C. Determining how a product should be shipped considering its weight and value
D. Finding the minimum cost carrier
26) Supply-chain response relates to the following:
A. How quickly a customer order can be filled
B. How quickly a company can react to a new competing product
C. How inexpensive the product is
D. A and B
27) According to Hau Lee, which of the following types of products need to be
delivered with efficient supply-chains?
A. Innovative products

10. B. Custom products
C. Grocery products
D. High technology products
28) The best operating level is:
A. the level of capacity for which average unit cost is minimized
B. the maximum point of the cost curve
C. maximum capacity
D. the level of capacity for which total cost is minimized
29) Capacity utilization rate can be computed as:
A. Capacity used + best operating level
B. Capacity used - best operating level
C. Capacity used / best operating level
D. Capacity used x best operating level
30) The steps to determining capacity requirements include:
A. Using decision trees to evaluate capacity alternatives
B. Calculating equipment and labor requirements to meet product line forecasts
C. Projecting labor and equipment availabilities over the planning horizon
D. B and C
31) Which of the following is not true about JIT systems?

11. A. The goal of JIT is to drive all inventory queues to a moderate level thus minimizi
ng
inventory investment and shortening lead times.
B. The JIT system is based on the philosophy of eliminating waste and utilizing the
full
capability of the worker.
C. JIT is typically applied to repetitive manufacturing.
D. Under JIT the ideal lot size is one.
32) Which of the following is not an element of JIT?
A. kanan pull system
B. small-lot production
C. Multifunction worker
D. quickly changing schedule
33) Which of the following is NOT one of the more successful applications of lean
concepts in services?
A. Introduction of demand-push scheduling
B. Organize problem-solving groups
C. Upgrade quality
D. Upgrade housekeeping
34) Which of the following would not be classified as a component of demand?

12. A. Causal variation
B. Trend
C. Cycle
D. Seasonality
35) Which of the following statements are true about time-series forecasting?
A. Time series methods are useful for long-
range forecasts when the demand pattern is
erratic
B. Time series analysis is based on the idea that the history of occurrences over ti
me
can be used to predict the future.
C. Under time-series methods, demand is divided into the time-
based components such as
daily, weekly, etc.
D. Agent liability.Time series analysis tries to understand the system underlying an
d
surrounding the item being forecast.
36) Given that the previous forecast of 65 turned out to be four units less than the
actual demand. The next forecast is 66. What would be the value of alpha if the
simple exponential smoothing forecast method is being used?
A. 0.02

13. B. 0.4
C. 0.25
D. 0.04
37) Aggregate planners balance:
A. demand and costs
B. demand and inventories
C. supply and inventories
D. demand and capacity
38) Production planning strategies include:
A. Chase strategy
B. Level strategy
C. Stable workforce-variable work hours
D. A, B, and C
39) Which of the following accurately describes a chase strategy?
A. The firm produces the same amount each day over the planning period and deal
s with
the variations in demand through the use of inventory or overtime.
B. The firm produces at the same level for several months, and then adjusts produc
tion to
another level and produces at that level for several more months.

14. C. All of the above could describe the strategy, depending on the organization.
D. The firm produces exactly what is needed every month.
40) Which MRP system input element specifies how many and when the firm plans
to
build each end item?
A. Inventory records file
B. Bills of material
C. Capacity planning
D. Master production schedule
41) Which of the following is not an advantage of MRP?
A. Reduced sales price
B. Reduced inventory
C. MRP is flexible - easy to veer away from the schedule if need arises
D. Reduced idle time
42) Which of the following most closely describes net material requirements?
A. gross requirements - planned order receipts
B. gross requirements - on-hand + planned order receipts
C. gross requirements - planned order releases
D. gross requirements - on-hand - planned order receipts

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