UGC NET - Question Bank - Fully Solved - More than 1500 Objective type/Multiple Choice questions With answer keys - Manu Melwin Joy

UGC NET
Question Bank
(Fully Solved)

Objective type/Multiple Choice questions
With answer keys
1500+

PAPER II
Human Resource Management
Labour Welfare
Industrial Relations
(Sub Code: 55)

Prepared By
Manu Melwin Joy
Assistant Professor
Ilahia School of Management Studies
Kerala, India.
Phone – 9744551114
Mail – manu_melwinjoy@yahoo.com
Kindly restrict the use of slides for personal purpose.
Please seek permission to reproduce the same in public forms and presentations.

Contents
1. UGC NET LW/PM/IR June 2016. (Fully solved)
2. UGC NET LW/PM/IR December 2015. (Fully solved)

Contents
1. UGC NET LW/PM/IR Sample paper 1. (Fully solved)

UGC NET
LABOUR WELFARE/PERSONNEL
MANAGEMENT/INDUSTRIAL
RELATION
June 2016

Madras
• The first of May in 1927 was for the first time
celebrated as ‘Labour Day’ at
• (1) Calcutta
• (2) Bombay
• (3) Madras
• (4) Ahmedabad

Muzaffar Ahmad
• Who started the publication of the Bengali
Weekly, titled ‘Janawani’ in Calcutta ?
• (1) Shapurji Bengalee
• (2) M.N. Roy
• (3) Muzaffar Ahmad
• (4) Diwan Chamanlal

300 workers
• According to the Second National Commission
on Labour, ‘check-off system’ must be made
compulsory for members of all registered
trade unions in establishments employing :
• (1) 150 workers
• (2) 200 workers
• (3) 250 workers
• (4) 300 workers

Agency shop
• Under which type of Union Security, an
employee in the bargaining unit is obliged to pay
dues to the union in return for the collective
bargaining service which it is rendering to him,
although he does not join the union ?
• (1) Preferential union shop
• (2) Closed shop
• (3) Agency shop
• (4) Union shop

Industrial Union
• The Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association is
an example of
• (1) Craft Union
• (2) Staff Union
• (3) Industrial Union
• (4) General Union

Wage Board
• Which of the following is a non-statutory
adhoc body ?
• (1) Central Implementation and Evaluation
Committee
• (2) Central Committee on Labour Research
• (3) Committee on Conventions
• (4) Wage Board

Social assistance
• Social security provided by a ‘means test’ is
called
• (1) Need based assistance
• (2) Social assistance
• (3) Social assurance
• (4) Mutual assistance

7,000
• An employee working in an organisation
draws a salary of ` 20,000/- per month. What
is the amount of bonus that he shall be paid
at the minimum rate of 8.33% under the
payment of Bonus Act, 1965 ?
• (1) 20,000
• (2) 8,333
• (3) 7,000
• (4) 3,500

Keynes
• Who among the following viewed
unemployment as outcome of the
disorganization of economic system ?
• (1) Keynes
• (2) Lioneal Edie
• (3) Karls Pribram
• (4) Fairchild

Article 40
• The Directive Principles of state policy, as
Contained in the Constitution of India, contains
Articles incorporating provisions for Labour
Welfare. Which among the following Articles does
not contain provisions for Labour Welfare :
• (1) Article 38
• (2) Article 39
• (3) Article 40
• (4) Article 41

UGC NET
RELATION
December 2015

UGC NET
RELATION
December 2014

Frank B. Gilbreth
• Who identified the basic elements of work
known as ‘therbligs’ ?
• (A) Henry L. Gantt
• (B) Frank B. Gilbreth
• (C) F.W. Taylor
• (D) All of the above

Elton Mayo
• Who among the following concluded that the
factory was a social system and informal groups at
work place play a vital role in industrial affairs ?
• (A) Elton Mayo
• (B) Henry Fayol
• (C) Blake and Mouton
• (D) Herzberg

Social loafing
• The tendency of people to expend less effort
when working collectively than when working
individually is called
• (A) Social loafing
• (B) Socialising
• (C) Adjourning
• (D) Social action

Line & staff function
• Personnel Management is essentially a
• (A) Matrix function
• (B) Line function
• (C) Staff function
• (D) Line & staff function

B and C
• Which of the following comes under the scope of
line and staff relationship ?
• (A) The relationship between works manager and
maintenance engineer
• (B) The relationship between works manager and
personnel manager
• (C) The relationship between personnel manager
and development engineer
• (D) The relationship between the public relation
officer and the public

Job description
• The broad statement of the duties and
responsibilities of a Job or position is called
• (A) Job description
• (B) Job specification
• (C) Job analysis
• (D) Job evaluation

Staffing
• The function of attracting, acquiring and
inducting Human Resources in an organisation
is called
• (A) Selection
• (B) Recruitment
• (C) Staffing
• (D) Training and Placement

Industry level
• Wage Boards Fix wages for employees at
• (A) Regional level
• (B) Plant level
• (C) National level
• (D) Industry level

Sensitivity Training
• Which of the following is not a Simulation
Technique of development ?
• (A) In-basket
• (B) Case study
• (C) Sensitivity Training
• (D) Management Games

(C) iii ii i
• Match the following Expression with the Ego states
mentioned against them :
• Expression Ego States
• a. Rationality i. Parent
• b. Fantasizing ii. Child
• c. Demonstrating iii. Adult
• Codes :
• a b c
• (A) i ii iii
• (B) ii i iii
• (C) iii ii i
• (D) i iii ii

Cognitive Dissonance
• Selectivity in responding to information that is
in conformity with one’s own feeling, is
because of
• (A) Cognitive Dissonance
• (B) Perceptual Defence
• (C) Filtering
• (D) Mis-perception

Sequential interdependence
• When one group’s performance depends on
another group’s performance, it may result
into inter-group conflict. Such dependence is
described as :
• (A) Pooled interdependence
• (B) Classical interdependence
• (C) Reciprocal interdependence
• (D) Sequential interdependence

Self-renewal system
• The act of an organization which ‘re-examines
its organizational structures, systems and
procedures from time to time, even when the
organisation is successful and has no problems
necessitating such examination’ is known as :
• (A) Performance Appraisal System
• (B) Counteracting system
• (C) Self-renewal system
• (D) Development system

(C) c d b a
• Match the following theories and the scientists who propounded
them :
• List – A (Theories) List – B(Scientists)
• I. Two Factor Theory a. Adolf Alderfer
• II. Achievement Motivation Theory b. Murray
• III. Manifest Need Theory c. Frederic Hertzberg
• IV. ERG Theory d. David McClelland
• Codes :
• I II III IV
• (A) d c b a
• (B) a b c d
• (C) c d b a
• (D) a d c b

(B) III IV II I V
• Which of the following sequence of group
development process is correct ?
• I. Performing II. Norming
• III. Forming IV. Storming
• V. Adjourning
• Codes :
• (A) V I II IV III
• (B) III IV II I V
• (C) III I II V IV
• (D) I V III II IV

(C) Both(A) and (R) are true. (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).
• Assertion (A) : The content Theories of
Motivation assume a direct relationship between
Job Satisfaction and improved performance.
• Reason (R) : Job satisfaction does not necessarily
lead to work performance.
• (A) (A) is true, (R) is false.
• (B) (A) is false, (R) is true.
• (C) Both(A) and (R) are true. (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
• (D) Both (A) and (R) are false. (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).

Attribution
• When people give ‘Cause and Effect
explanation’ to their behaviour, it is called
• (A) Closure
• (B) Stereotyping
• (C) Attribution
• (D) Inference

(B) The ‘self’ which is known to others
but not to oneself.
• The term “Blind Spot” in the Johari Window
refers to
• (A) The ‘Public self’ which is known to others as
well as to oneself.
• (B) The ‘self’ which is known to others but not to
oneself.
• (C) The ‘self’ which is neither known to others nor
to oneself.
• (D) The motives, feelings, etc. which are known to
oneself.

(C) Pluralistic approach
• Which approach to industrial relations aims to
combine social stability with adaptability and
freedom ?
• (A) Classical approach
• (B) Neo-classical approach
• (C) Pluralistic approach
• (D) Social action approach

(C) It believes that capitalism cannot continue to
maintain itself only by lowering the standard of living
of the working class.
• Which of the following statements about the
Marxist approach to industrial relations is not
correct ?
• (A) It sees industrial conflict as synonymous with
political and social conflicts.
• (B) It considers pluralism as a mere illusion.
• (C) It believes that capitalism cannot continue to
maintain itself only by lowering the standard of
living of the working class.
• (D) It favours transformation of trade unions into
revolutionary organisations.

Interest Disputes
• Disputes that arise out of deadlocks in
negotiations for a collective agreement are
popularly known as
• (A) Grievance Disputes
• (B) Interest Disputes
• (C) Recognition Disputes
• (D) Unfair Labour Practice Disputes

All the above sections.
• In India, strikes in contravention of the
provisions of which section(s) of the Industrial
Disputes Act, are illegal ?
• (A) Section 22
• (B) Section 23
• (C) Section 24
• (D) All the above sections.

Frank Tannenbaum
• Who emphasised that the trade union
movement had emerged as labour’s reaction
to the dominance of the machine in modern
society ?
• (A) G.D.H. Cole
• (B) Selig Perlman
• (C) Karl Marx
• (D) Frank Tannenbaum

(B) Primary union of general type
• Any Union that caters to all employees
working in a variety of industries under one
owner located at the same place is
categorised as
• (A) Primary union of industrial type
• (B) Primary union of general type
• (C) Primary union of craft type
• (D) Region-cum-industrial level union

(A) c, d, b, e, a
• Arrange the following trade union federations on
the basis of their year of emergence from the
earliest to the latest :
• (a) CITU (b) UTUC (c) AITUC (d) INTUC
• (e) BMS
• Codes :
• (A) c, d, b, e, a
• (B) a, e, b, d, c
• (C) d, c, b, e, a
• (D) c, b, d, a, e

(C) a, c, d
• Which of the following statements is/are true about
trade unionism in India ?
• a. It had moorings in the freedom struggle.
• b. It had received patronage from employers.
• c. It originated due to workers’ demands.
• d. It originated due to imperatives of tripartite
representation in the ILO.
• Codes :
• (A) Only a
• (B) a and b
• (C) a, c, d
• (D) a, b, d

Sidney and Beatrice Webbs
• The ‘Socialist Manifesto’ for converting
capitalist economy into a mixed economy was
developed by
• (A) Karl Marx
• (B) G.D.H. Cole
• (C) William Baveridge
• (D) Sidney and Beatrice Webbs

(B) Convention No. 100, 1951
• The enactment of the Equal Remuneration
Act, 1976 is associated with which of the
following conventions of the ILO ?
• (A) Convention No. 111, 1958
• (B) Convention No. 100, 1951
• (C) Convention No. 123, 1975
• (D) Convention No. 118, 1964

Three years
• The valuation of the assets and liabilities of
the ESI corporation shall have to be made at
an interval of
• (A) Two years
• (B) Five years
• (C) Four years
• (D) Three years

(D) 7 days of wages for every season
• Under the provisions of the Payment of
Gratuity Act, 1972, employees working in a
seasonal establishment and who have not
been employed throughout the year, the
employers shall be paid gratuity at the rate of
• (A) 10 days of wages for every year
• (B) 10 days of wags for every season
• (C) 15 days of wages for every year
• (D) 7 days of wages for every season

(A) 10 ½ hours
• Under the Factories Act, 1948, the spread
over period including rest interval in a day for
an adult worker should not normally exceed
• (A) 10 ½ hours
• (B) 11 hours
• (C) 12 hours
• (D) 11 ½ hou

(B) ` 100
• What is the minimum amount of bonus
payable to an adult employee during an
accounting year ?
• (A) ` 1000
• (B) ` 100
• (C) ` 833
• (D) ` 750

(A) Three percent of wage
• What is the maximum amount of fine that can
be imposed on an employee in a wage period
under the Payment of Wags Act, 1936 ?
• (A) Three percent of wage
• (B) Five percent of wage
• (C) Ten percent of wage
• (D) Eight percent of wage

(A) iii iv i ii
• Match the following principles of labour welfare with the relevant themes :
• Principle Theme
• a. Principle of coordination i. Delegation of authority to the
committees
• b. Principle of association ii. Avoiding procrastination in welfare work.
• c. Principle of responsibility iii. Avoiding piecemeal approach to labour
welfare and adopting a total perspective.
• d. Principle of timeliness iv. Eliciting the participation and
collaboration of workers and their
representatives.
• Codes :
• a b c d
• (A) iii iv i ii
• (B) ii iv i iii
• (C) iii ii iv i
• (D) iv ii i iii

(A) iii i iv ii
• Match the following concepts of labour with the relevant theme :
• Concept of Labour Theme
• a. Commodity concept of Labour i. Labour regarded by the employer largely as
operating organizations in industry.
• b. Machinery concept of Labour ii. Labour has right to be consulted in regard
to the terms and conditions under
which they are supposed to work.
• c. Goodwill concept of Labour iii. Labour is affected by the law of supply and
demand.
• d. Citizenship concept of Labour iv. Paternalistic approach towards labour by
the employers.
• Codes :
• a b c d
• (A) iii i iv ii
• (B) ii iv iii i
• (C) iv iii i ii
• (D) i iii ii iv

(D) Monospony in the labour market
is less common than monopoly.
• Which of the following is not a feature of labour
market ?
• (A) It is essentially local in character.
• (B) It is not monopolistic.
• (C) It is less mobile compared to commodity and
capital markets.
• (D) Monospony in the labour market is less
common than monopoly.

(A) Subsistence Theory
• Which of the following theories of wages is
called as the ‘Iron Law of Wages’ ?
• (A) Subsistence Theory
• (B) The Standard of Living Theory
• (C) The Wage Fund Theory
• (D) The Residual Claimant Theory

(D) Labour Market Perfections
• Which of the following is not a factor that
creates wage differentials ?
• (A) Differences due to existence of non-
competing groups.
• (B) Non-equalizing differences
• (C) Differences in Labour Quality
• (D) Labour Market Perfections

(A) Consumer Price Index
• On what basis the money wage can be
converted into real wages ?
• (A) Consumer Price Index
• (B) Wholesale Price Index
• (C) Retail Price Index
• (D) Money Exchange Rate

UGC NET
RELATION
June 2014

(C) Decision Theory
• Which of the following is/are not a part of
classical approach to management ?
• (A) Scientific Management
• (B) Administrative Management
• (C) Decision Theory
• (D) Bureaucratic Organization

(C) Flexibilities in management.
• Which of the following is not a barrier to
effective planning ?
• (A) Difficulty of accurate premising.
• (B) Environmental changes.
• (C) Flexibilities in management.
• (D) Time and Cost factors.

Option D
• Graicuna’s formula suggests that
• (A) the number of subordinates and relations both
increase in arithmetic progression.
• (B) the number of subordinates increases in
geometric progression and number of relations
increases in arithmetic progression.
• (C) The number of subordinates and relations both
increase in geometric progression.
• (D) the number of subordinates increases in
arithmetic progression while the number of
relations increase in geometric progression.

Option B
• The first step in control process is to
• (A) measure actual performance.
• (B) establish objectives and standards.
• (C) compare results with objectives.
• (D) take corrective action.

Option B
• The procedure for determining duties,
responsibilities, working conditions and
reporting relationships is known as
• (A) Job design
• (B) Job description
• (C) Job specification
• (D) Job evaluation

Option D
• In which of the following systems, minimum
wage is guaranteed but beyond a certain
efficiency level, bonus is given in addition to
minimum day wages ?
• (A) Straight piece rate system
• (B) Differential piece rate system
• (C) Gantt task and Bonus system
• (D) Emerson’s Efficiency system

Option C
• In line and staff organization
• (A) lines of authority and instructions are
vertical.
• (B) unity of command is maintained.
• (C) staff specialists advise line managers to
perform their duties.
• (D) Staff decides without consulting line
authority.

Option B
• TAT stands for
• (A) Thematic Application Test
• (B) Thematic Apperception Test
• (C) Training Aptitude Test
• (D) Thematic Attitude Test

Option C
• Which of the following is not a method of Job
Evaluation ?
• (A) Ranking Method
• (B) Grading Method
• (C) Paired Comparison Method
• (D) Point Method

Option C
• Who is the propagator of Human Capital
Approach to Human Resource Development ?
• (A) Lim Teck Ghee
• (B) Lorraine Corner
• (C) T.W. Schultz
• (D) F.D. Lawrence

Option D
• Which of the following statements about
Human Resource Development is not true ?
• (A) It is an enabling process.
• (B) It is a competence building exercise.
• (C) It shall be implemented in an incremental
way with geographical, vertical, functional and
sophisticating phasing.
• (D) It does not cover the global and country level
Human Resource Development practices.

Option B
• Which of the following is not a method of
performance appraisal ?
• (A) Forced Distribution Method
• (B) Factor Comparison Method
• (C) Forced Choice Method
• (D) Critical Incident Method

Option A
• Gagne-Briggs Theory of Training is otherwise
called as
• (A) Instructional Design Theory
• (B) Component Display Theory
• (C) Elaboration Theory
• (D) KSA Theory

Option D
• Assertion (A) : Quality circles in India was an imported idea
from Japan without proper cultural changes in the
organizations.
• Reason (R) : The corporate culture assimilating learning,
empowerment and participation as equals could not be
developed due to absolute mindset of both employers and
employees.
• Codes :
• (A) Assertion is wrong and Reason does not validate the
assertion.
• (B) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
• (C) Assertion is right but Reason does not validate the
Assertion.
• (D) Both Assertion and Reason are right and the Reason
validates the Assertion.

Option C
• The aspect of management that is concerned
with the individuals, their roles, the dyads, the
teams and the entire organization is
• (A) Human Resource Management
• (B) Human Resource Development
• (C) Organizational Behaviour
• (D) Organizational Culture

Option B
• Potential effectiveness of a person in both
personal and interpersonal situations while in
performance in a position is known as
• (A) Role effectiveness
• (B) Role efficacy
• (C) Role making
• (D) Role linking

Option D
• The essence of Exchange theory regarding
formation of a group is
• (A) People are attracted to one another on the basis
of exchange of similar attitudes towards common
objects and goals.
• (B) People are attracted to one another interacting
with one another and cooperating to achieve the
goals.
• (C) People are attracted to one another by having
propinquity to each other.
• (D) People are attracted to one another by
interacting through reward-cost outcomes.

Option D
• Being a Manager in an organization, if you are
asked to enrich the job of your subordinate, you
will not consider which of the following ?
• (A) Remove some controls while retaining
accountability.
• (B) Increase the accountability of individuals to their
work.
• (C) Introduce new and more difficult tasks compared
to those handled previously.
• (D) Assign general tasks to people to make them
experts in those tasks.

Karl Marx
• Who is associated with the radical approach
to industrial relations ?
• (A) Mahatma Gandhi
• (B) John T. Dunlop
• (C) Karl Marx
• (D) Allan Flandevs

Option D
• According to John T. Dunlop, the outputs of an
Industrial Relations System include
• (A) Agreements, customs and traditions of the
work place and work community.
• (B) Awards and orders of Government agencies.
• (C) Regulations and policies of the management
hierarchy.
• (D) All the above.

Option A
• The institutional causes of industrial disputes
do not include
• (A) Technology and Machinery
• (B) Recognition of Unions
• (C) Membership of Unions
• (D) Bargaining Unit

Option B
• Arrange the following in a sequence according to
the years of their establishment from the earliest
to latest
• a. Indian Labour Conference
• b. Central Board of Worker’s Education
• c. Standing Conference on Public Enterprises
• d. Indian National Trade Union Congress
• (A) a, b, c, d (B) a, d, b, c
• (C) d, c, b, a (D) b, d, a, c

Option A
• Assertion (A) : The scope of Industrial Relations is
relative to business environment.
• Reason (R) : It shall be Universal and Perpetual.
• Codes :
• (A) (A) and (R) are right.
• (B) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
• (C) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
• (D) (A) is right, but its explanation given in (R) is
wrong.

Option A
• The Jamshedpur Labour Union is
• (A) a general union.
• (B) an industrial union.
• (C) a craft union.
• (D) an industrial federation.

Option D
• Arrange the following in a sequence according to
the years of their establishment from the earliest
to the latest :
• a. Madras Labour Union
• b. Bombay Mill Hands Association
• c. AITUC
• d. Indian Federation of Labour
• Codes :
• (A) c, d, b, a (B) a, c, d, b
• (C) d, b, c, a (D) b, a, c, d

Option C
• The provision of Unfair Labour Practices is
incorporated under which labour legislation ?
• (A) The Trade Unions Act
• (B) The Industrial Employment
• (Standing Orders) Act
• (C) The Industrial Disputes Act
• (D) The Factories Act

Option C
• Which one of the following is not a manifestation of
inter-union rivalry ?
• (A) A registered union pressurizing the employer to call
it for negotiation on issues which are already agreed
upon with the recognized union.
• (B) A registered union claiming itself to be the majority
union and as such pressurising the employer to accord
the recognition status to it.
• (C) Two rival groups of members emerging within a
union expressing their support to two separate office
bearers of the union.
• (D) The members of two registered unions getting
engaged in a blame game while performing a job that
calls for team work.

Option C
• Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
with Right to Freedom of Association ?
• (A) Article 15
• (B) Article 17
• (C) Article 19
• (D) Article 23

Option B
• Which of the following conventions of the ILO
has not been ratified by India ?
• (A) Convention relating to Forced Labour.
• (B) Convention relating to Freedom of
Association and Right to Organise.
• (C) Convention relating to Equal Remuneration.
• (D) Convention relating to Discrimination
(Employment/Occupation)

Option D
• Under the Factories Act, it is compulsory for
an employer to appoint a safety officer in his
factory, if the number of workers employedin
factory is
• (A) 400
• (B) 600
• (C) 800
• (D) 1000

Option D
• Which of the following factors is not
responsible for growth of social and labour
legislation ?
• (A) Early industrialisation
• (B) Rise of Unionism
• (C) Establishment of ILO
• (D) Ethnic association

Option D
• The amount of funeral benefit under the
Employees’ State Insurance Act is
• (A) ` 2,500
• (B) ` 3,500
• (C) ` 5,000
• (D) ` 10,000

Option D
• Which of the following is not affected by the
Trade Unions Act ?
• (A) Any agreement between partners as to their
own business.
• (B) Any agreement between an employer and
those employed by him as to such employment.
• (C) Any agreement in consideration on the sale of
the goodwill of business or of instruction in any
profession, trade or handicraft.
• (D) All of these.

Option C
• Chronologically arrange the years of enactments
from earliest to latest of labour legislations
relating to wages and remunerations given below
:
• a. Minimum Wages Act
• b. Payment of Wages Act
• c. Equal Remuneration Act
• d. Payment of Bonus Act
• Codes :
• (A) a, b, c, d (B) a, c, d, b
• (C) b, a, d, c (D) b, a, c, d

Option A
• Which of the following is not considered as
“Wage” under the provisions of Payment of Wages
Act ?
• (A) Any sum paid to the employed person to
defray special expenses entailed by him by the
nature of his employment.
• (B) Any remuneration to which the person is
entitled in respect of overtime work.
• (C) Any sum to which the person employed under
any scheme framed under any law in force.
• (D) All of these.

Option B
• In the landmark judgement by Supreme Court in
case of “Bangalore Water supply and Sewerage
Board Vs. A. Rajappa” which of the following is
not considered as essential requisite for defining
“Industry” ?
• (A) Systematic Activity
• (B) Profit-motive and capital investment
• (C) Co-operation between employer and
employees
• (D) Production and/or distribution of goods and
services scheduled to satisfy human wants and
wishes.

Option A
• Who spearheaded the Welfare Movement
during the early industrialisation period ?
• (A) Robert Owen
• (B) Robert Katz
• (C) Andrew Ure
• (D) Sheebhom Rowntree

Option D
• Baveridge Plan is associated with
• a. Unemployment
• b. Disability
• c. Loss of livelihood
• d. Retirement benefits
• Codes :
• (A) b, c and d (B) b and d
• (C) c and d (D) a, b, c and d

Option B
• Which of the following statements about CSR
provision in the new Companies Bill passed in
parliament is not true ?
• (A) It is compulsory for a company to spend on
CSR if its net worth is at least ` 500 crore.
• (B) There is provision for minimum turnover of `
800 crore.
• (C) The net profit of at least ` 5 crore in a year is a
condition for compulsory spending on CSR.
• (D) The companies have to spend 2% of its average
profits of three years on corporate social
responsibility.

Option B
• ‘A place for everything and everything in its
place’ is the basic underlying principle of
– (A) Safety
– (B) House-keeping
– (C) Workplace governance
– (D) None of the above

Option C
• Under which legislation, housing is a statutory
provision ?
– (A) The Factories Act
– (B) The Mines Act
– (C) The Plantation Labour Act
– (D) All the above

Option D
‘labour’ is false ?
– (A) Labour is not a commodity.
– (B) Labour is perishable and does not last.
– (C) Labour is inseparable from labourer himself.
– (D) Rapid adjustment of supply of labour to its
demand is possible.

Option B
• Which of the following have been devoted to
reduce inter-firm and inter-area wage
differentials in India ?
– (A) Joint Negotiation Committees
– (B) Wage Boards
– (C) Works committee
– (D) Joint Councils

Option B
• Under which of the following incentive plans “a
worker is guaranteed a minimum wage on the
time basis. Then a standard time is fixed for the
completion of every work and if the worker
completes the work in less time, he is given a
bonus of the time actually saved in proportion to
the total time” ?
– (A) Halsey Premium System
– (B) Rowan Premium System
– (C) Barth System
– (D) The Emersion Efficiency System

UGC NET
RELATION
June 2015

Option 3
• In which year, the book entitled “Principles of
Scientific Management” was published?
• 1901.
• 1903.
• 1911.
• 1912.

Option 3
• Which method of training utilizes equipments
that closely resemble the actual ones used on
the job?
• Role playing.
• Vestibule Training.
• Sensitivity Training.
• Programmed Instruction.

Option 1
• Which one of the following is an immediate
product of job analysis?
• Job description.
• Job rotation.
• Job enrichment.
• Job enlargement.

Option 4
• Which of the following approaches to
management is a reactive approach instead of
being proactive?
• System approach.
• Quantitative approach.
• Decision theory approach.
• Contingency approach.

Option 3
• Which perspective on industrial relations is
based on the notion that the production
system is privately owned and is motivated by
profit?
• Unitary perspective.
• Pluralist perspective.
• Radical perspective.
• Trusteeship perspective.

Option 4
• A strike that is suddenly called, generally
without notice is known as:
• Sit in strike.
• Protest strike.
• Tools down strike.
• Wild cat strike.

Option 2
• Who played an instrumental role in the
formulation of code of discipline?
• V V Giri.
• G L Nanda.
• Khandubhai Desai.
• Ravindra Verma.

Option 1
• Which of the following conventions of the ILO
relates to freedom of association?
• Convention No. 87.

Option 3
• Which of the following methods of forecasting
assumes that group decision making is more
valid than individual judgement?
• Trend analysis.
• Sales force composite method.
• Delphi Method.
• Opinion poll method.

Option 2
• Which of the following represents the general
statements that guide or channel thinking in
decision making?
• Strategies.
• Policies.
• Procedures.
• Programmes.

Option 2
• Horizontal clique, vertical clique and random
clique are the examples of:
• Formal group.
• Informal group.
• Out – group.
• In – group.

Option 2
• The term “court” under the industrial Disputes
Act, 1947 refers to which of the following?
• Labour court.
• Court of inquiry.
• High court.
• Civil Court.

Option 2
• Under the maternity Benefit act, 1961, a
women employee would get a medical bonus
amounting to:
• 3000
• 3500
• 4000
• 5000

Option 3
• Before the enactment of Workmen’s
(Employee’s) Compensation Act, 1923,
workers suffering a personal injury in course
of employment claimed damages under:
• Economic Law.
• Social Law.
• Common Law.
• Industrial Law.

Option 2
• As per the provisions of the Factories Act,
1948, Week is a period of seven days
beginning at midnight of :
• Sunday.
• Saturday.
• Monday.
• Friday.

Option 3
• What is the minimum number of persons to
be appointed in the Advisory Committee
under the provisions of the Equal
Remuneration Act, 1976?
• Five.
• Fifteen.
• Ten.
• Twelve.

Option 1
• Under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit
Act, 1961, every woman employee after
delivery of a child who returns to duty is to be
provided with nursing breaks till the child
attains the age of:
• Fifteen months.
• Twelve months.
• Eighteen months.
• Ten months.

Option 1
• Under the provisions of the Payment of Bonus
Act, 1965, the gross profits derived by an
employer from an establishment in respect of
any accounting year in case of a banking
company shall be calculated in the manner as
specified under:
• First schedule.
• Second schedule.
• Third Schedule.
• Fourth Schedule.

UGC NET
RELATION
December 2013

Option D
• Which one of the following is not the
characteristic of planning ?
• (A) It deals with future
• (B) It involves selection of particular course of
action
• (C) It is pervasive
• (D) It is not strategic

Option B
• Premature evaluation is a type of
• (A) semantic barrier
• (B) psychological barrier
• (C) organisational barrier
• (D) personal barrier

Option C
• Which of the following is not a feature of
systems approach ?
• (A) A system is a combination of parts
• (B) Parts and sub-parts are related to one
another
• (C) It is not necessary for a system to have a
boundary
• (D) System transforms inputs into outputs

Option B
• Which of the following organisations is a two-
dimensional structure ?
• (A) Functional structure
• (B) Matrix structure
• (C) Line structure
• (D) Divisional structure

Option A
• Job description includes information about
• (A) Job responsibilities, duties and working
conditions.
• (B) Job responsibilities, duties and worth in
terms of wage and salary.
• (C) Job responsibilities and qualifications for
performance.
• (D) Job responsibilities, duties and
qualifications for performance.

Option D
• Differentiation between line and staff
functions is necessary because it helps in
• (A) providing specialized services.
• (B) maintaining adequate checks and balances.
• (C) maintaining accountability.

Option B
• Which of the following refers to analysis of
handwriting to determine writer’s basic
personality traits ?
• (A) Kinesics
• (B) Graphology
• (C) Polygraphy
• (D) Both (B) and (C)

Option B
• The five basic features of Scanlon plan of
incentive payment are
• (A) control, individuality, competence,
involvement and sharing of benefits.
• (B) cooperation, identity, competence,
involvement and sharing of benefits.
• (C) control, individuality, commitment,
involvement , and sharing of benefits.
• (D) cooperation, identity, control, involvement
and sharing of profits.

Option B
• Which of the following is a process of
systematically identifying, assessing and
developing organisational leadership to
enhance performance ?
• (A) Manpower planning
• (B) Career planning
• (C) Succession planning
• (D) Human Resource planning

Option D
• Who is the profounder of the Socio
psychological approach to Human Resource
Development ?
• (A) T.W. Schultz
• (B) Lorraine Corner
• (C) Lim Teck Ghee
• (D) David McClelland

Option C
• Read the following statements on HRD need
analysis. Identify the one which is not true :
• (A) HRD needs can be identified at strategic,
organisational, operational, task and person levels
• (B) HRD needs can be diagnostic, analytic,
compliance oriented and proactive
• (C) competency mapping, performance appraisal
and clarity of career paths identify HRD needs at
task level only
• (D) Task related KSA analysis and training need
analysis are integral part of HRD need analysis

Option D
• Assertion (A) : Performance Appraisal cannot be
error free and unbiased.
• Reason (R) : The Appraisal Methods are covertly
influenced by human judgement which may be
vitiated by inter-personal discriminatory
impulses.
• (A) Assertion (A) is right, Reason (R) is wrong.
• (B) Assertion (A) is wrong, Reason (R) is right.
• (C) Reason (R) does not subscribe to the Assertion
(A).
• (D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are right,
and Reason (R) validate Assertion (A).

Option D
• When Human Relations training is given to
managers the method adopted is :
• (A) In-Basket Exercise
• (B) Role-play method
• (C) Managerial Grid Training
• (D) Sensitivity Training

Option C
• When team-building can be attempted by
creating artificial teams in which people get
opportunity to experiment and learn from
their behaviour in a less threatening context,
it is based on :
• (A) Behaviour Modification Approach
• (B) Action Research Approach
• (C) Simulation Approach
• (D) Team Role Approach

Option D
• Who has extended the Vroom’s Expectancy
Theory of Motivation by suggesting that
motivation is not equal to satisfaction and
performance and by depicting what happens
after performance ?
• (A) Harold Kelly
• (B) Edward Tolman
• (C) Alderfer
• (D) Porter and Lawler

Option A
• Which of the following is an invisible part but
a powerful template that shapes, what
happens at the workplace ?
• (A) Organisational culture
• (B) Organisational climate
• (C) Organisational dynamics
• (D) Organisational structure

Option A
• Match the following :
• Needs Refers to
• a. Intrinsic i. Recognition by boss
• b. Extrinsic ii. Regular salary
• c. Expressed iii. Self initiative
• d. Wanted iv.Expecting others to
• initiate
• Codes :
• a b c d
• (A) iv iii i ii
• (B) i iv iii ii
• (C) ii i iv iii
• (D) iii ii iv i

Option D
• The trusteeship approach to industrial
relations was advocated by :
• (A) Karl Marx
• (B) Max Weber
• (C) Allan Flanders
• (D) Mahatma Gandhi

Option C
• Which of the following is a machinery for the
settlement of Industrial Disputes in India ?
• (A) National Commission on Labour
• (B) Wage Board
• (C) Industrial Tribunal
• (D) Standing Labour Committee

Option D
• In which year, the International Institute of
Labour studies was established ?
• (A) 1919
• (B) 1926
• (C) 1950
• (D) 1960

Option C
• Who advanced the concept of ‘Three tier
institutional structure’ of Industrial Relations
?
• (A) John T. Dunlop
• (B) Allan Flanders
• (C) Kochan, Katz & Mckersie
• (D) Roy Adam

Option B
• Which of the following is not a correct statement
pertaining to the meaning of trade union ?
– (A) It is a continuous association of wage earners for
maintaining or improving the conditions of their
working lives.
– (B) It is a society of individuals in one or more
professions for the purpose of protecting and
advancing, members’ economic interest.
– (C) It is a combination with an objective of regulating
the relation between workmen and workmen,
workmen and employer, employer and employer
– (D) It is any combination, whether temporary or
permanent formed primarily for regulating relations
between the two parties.

Option C
• Who formed the Bombay Millhands
Association ?
• (A) Sorabjee Shaprujee Bengali
• (B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
• (C) N.M. Lokhande
• (D) V.V. Giri

Option C
• In which country the trade union movement
began with industrial unions ?
• (A) Great Britain
• (B) U.S.A.
• (C) India
• (D) Canada

Option A
• Which one is not a right of a recognized union ?
– (A) A right of ‘Check-off’
– (B) To use notice board on the premises of the
undertaking
– (C) To appear on behalf of the union on domestic
inquiry
– (D) inspecting the undertaking

Option C
• The criteria for recognition of trade union under the code of discipline
are
• (a) union claiming recognition should have been functioning for atleast
one year after
• registration.
• (b) the membership of a union should cover atleast 5% of the workers
in that establishment.
• (c) A union can claim recognition as representative union for an industry
in a local area if it has 25% workers as members in that industry in that
area.
• (d) When a union is recognised there shall be no change in the position
for 5 years.
• (A) All the provisions are correct
• (B) All the provisions are incorrect
• (C) Only (a) and (c) are correct
• (D) Only (d) and (b) are correct

Option A
• Which of the following subjects is not
enumerated in the ‘concurrent list’ of the Indian
constitution ?
• (A) Oil fields
• (B) Trade Unions
• (C) Factories
• (D) Vocational and technical training of labour

Option C
• Which of the following statements relating to the
Employees’ Compensation Act is not correct ?
• (A) This Act has a link with the Workmen’s
Compensation Act
• (B) This act is the outcome of the amendment that
was made to the Workmen’s Compensation Act
• (C) This act does not have any provision relating to
temporary disablement of workmen
• (D) This act has a provision relating to permanent
partial disablement

Option B
• Under the Maternity Benefit Act, a woman
employee would get a medical bonus of :
• (A) ` 3000
• (B) ` 3500
• (C) ` 4000
• (D) ` 4500

Option B
• Which section of the Factories Act deals with
appointment of Welfare Officers ?
• (A) Section 45
• (B) Section 49
• (C) Section 51
• (D) Section 55

Option D
• The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 1988
provides for extension of the benefits to shops
and commercial establishments employing a
minimum of :
• (A) 7 persons
• (B) 8 persons
• (C) 10 persons
• (D) 20 persons

Option A
• Which of the following is not considered to be a
legal status for a registered union ?
– (A) No power to acquire and hold both movable and
immovable property
– (B) Power to contract with other entities
– (C) Perpetual succession and common seal
– (D) A body corporate by the name under which it is
registered

Option C
• The ‘New Lanark’ experiment is associated with :
• (A) Human Relations at workplace
• (B) Networking Organisations
• (C) Welfare Movement in Industries
• (D) Behavioural Theory

Option D
• Social security provided by a ‘means test’ is
called :
• (A) Social Insurance
• (B) Mutual Insurance
• (C) Social Assurance
• (D) Social Assistance

Option B
• In which of the following approaches ‘good will’
is considered as an important goal of labour
welfare work ?
• (A) Placating Theory
• (B) Public Relations Theory
• (C) Fundamental Theory
• (D) Philanthropic Theory

Option D
• For which of the following categories of workers,
there is no provision for welfare fund ?
• (A) The Beedi workers
• (B) Workers working in Mica Mines
• (C) Cine Workers
• (D) Workers working in the Printing Industry

Option B
• Under which segment of the Indian Constitution, the
Labour Policy is designed ?
• a. Preamble
• b. Fundamental Rights
• c. Directive Principles of State
• Policy
• d. Fundamental Duties
• (A) Only c
• (B) a, b and c
• (C) a and c
• (D) a, b, c and d

Option D
• The conversion of the ‘nominal wages’ into ‘Real
Wages’ is done by which of the following indices
?
• (A) Human Development Index
• (B) Poverty Index
• (C) Wholesale Price Index
• (D) Consumer Price Index

Option B
• Which of the following statements about wage
differentials is not true ?
• (A) Wage differentials can be attributed to
imperfections in employment market.
• (B) Social prejudices do not influence the wage
differentials.
• (C) Inter-industry wage differentials are bound to
occur.
• (D) Geographical wage differentials are a common
phenomenon.

Option C
• Which of the following formulae is used for
determining Minimum wages ?
• (A) Adarkar’s Formula
• (B) Rege Committee’s Formula
• (C) Dr. Aykroid’s Formula
• (D) Royal Commission on Labour’s Formula

UGC NET
RELATION
June 2013

Option C
• Who is regarded as the father of Scientific
Management ?
– (A) Albert Bandura
– (B) Louis D. Brandies
– (C) Frederick Winslow Taylor
– (D) Elton Mayo

Option B
• The Principle of Equifinality operates
• (A) within the internal environment
• (B) within the external environment
• (C) without environment
• (D) hostile environment

Option C
• Max Weber developed a theory of
• (A) Autocratic Management
• (B) Democratic Management
• (C) Bureaucratic Management
• (D) Free Style Management

Option D
• Grapevine is a type of
• (A) Formal Communication
• (B) Written Communication
• (C) Lateral Communication
• (D) Informal Communication

Option A
• Decision-making process is guided by
• (A) Policy
• (B) Procedure
• (C) Programme
• (D) Strategy

Option B
• Ten ‘C’ model of HRM architect was advanced by
• (A) Katz and Kahn
• (B) Alan Price
• (C) Chester I. Bernard
• (D) Max Weber

Option B
• Recruitment means
• (A) Total number of inquiries made
• (B) Total number of applications received
• (C) Total number of persons short listed
• (D) Total number of selectionsmade

Option C
• Arrange the following steps of Job analysis in proper
sequence :
• (a) Prepare the job description report.
• (b) Select the job.
• (c) Find out the requirements for each part of the job.
• (d) Break the job into various parts.
• Codes :
• (A) (b), (a), (d), (c)
• (B) (b), (c), (d), (a)
• (C) (b), (d), (c), (a)
• (D) (d), (c), (b), (a)

Option D
• Which of the following is not a factor for wage
determination ?
• (A) Cost of living
• (B) Prevailing wages
• (C) Purchasing power of people
• (D) Productivity

Option C
• Which of the following is not a part of
disciplinary action ?
• (A) Warning
• (B) Suspension
• (C) Transfer
• (D) Discharge

Option D
• The goal of HRD system is to develop
• (A) the capabilities of each employee as an
individual.
• (B) the capabilities of each individual in relation to
his or her present role.
• (C) the capabilities of each employee in relation to
his or her expected future roles.
• (D) all the above

Option B
• Which one is not a part of HRD system ?
• (A) Career Planning
• (B) Manpower Planning
• (C) Training
• (D) Organizational Development

Option A
• The other name of Sensitivity Training is
• (A) T-Group Training
• (B) Brainstorming
• (C) In-basket Exercise
• (D) Managerial Grid Training

Option C
• A small voluntary group of employees doing
similar or related work who meet regularly to
identify, analyse and solve product quality
problems and to improve general operations is
known as
• (A) Task Group
• (B) Kaizen Groups
• (C) Quality Circles
• (D) Informal Groups

Option B
• Which of the following is not an OD technique ?
• (A) Sensitivity Training
• (B) Delphi Technique
• (C) Survey Feedback
• (D) Grid Training

Option D
Organizational Behaviour is wrong ?
• (A) It is an inter-disciplinary subject.
• (B) It believes that individual, group and
organization are subsystems of OB.
• (C) Its explanation find roots in systems as well as
contingency theories.
• (D) It deals only with prediction of human
behaviour at work.

Option D
• Cultural Diversity explained by Greet Hofstede
has four components. Which of the following is
not a part of it ?
• (A) Individualism Vs Collectivism
• (B) Power Distance
• (C) Uncertainty Avoidance
• (D) Quality Vs Quantity of Life

Option B
• Arrange the following phases of group formation in
their right sequence :
• (a) forming (b) norming
• (c) performing (d) storming
• (e) adjourning
• Codes :
• (A) (a), (d), (c), (b), (e)
• (B) (a), (d), (b), (c), (e)
• (C) (a), (b), (d), (c), (e)
• (D) (a), (c), (d), (b), (e)

Option B
• Which of the following is not a field of industrial
relations ?
• (A) Study of workers and their trade unions
• (B) Study of consumers and their associations
• (C) Management and their associations
• (D) State and their institutions

Option D
• Which of the following is not a determinant
factor of industrial relations ?
• (A) Institutional factors
• (B) Economic factors
• (C) Technological factors
• (D) Social stratification factors

Option A
• Which of the following cannot be said to be an
effect of industrial disputes ?
• (A) High Productivity, Peace and Profit
• (B) High Labour Turnover
• (C) Higher rate of Absenteeism
• (D) Higher rate of Man-days lost

Option D
• Which of the following has not been provided
under the Code of Discipline ?
• (A) Unfair Labour Practices
• (B) Recognition of Trade Unions
• (C) Grievance Procedure
• (D) Multinational Companies

Option C
• Who among the following propounded the
theory of industrial democracy ?
• (A) Allan Flanders
• (B) Neil W. Chamberlain
• (C) Sydney & Beatrice Webbs
• (D) John T. Dunlop

Option A
• Which of the following was the first trade union
organised in India ?
• (A) Madras Labour Union
• (B) Textile Labour Association
• (C) Bombay Millhands Association
• (D) Kamgar Hitvardhak Sabha

Option B
• Functional types of trade unions were advocated
by
• (A) Selig Perlman
• (B) Robert F. Hoxie
• (C) G.D.H. Cole
• (D) S.H. Slitcher

Option C
• The Inter-Union Code of Conduct was evolved in
the year
• (A) 1956
• (B) 1957
• (C) 1958
• (D) 1959

Option C
• Which of the following is not a type of Labour
Legislation ?
• (A) Regulative Legislation
• (B) Protective Legislation
• (C) Uniformity Legislation
• (D) Social Security Legislation

Option B
• The first Factory Legislation in India was enacted
in
• (A) 1860
• (B) 1881
• (C) 1882
• (D) 1891

Option C
• Which of the following benefits have not been
provided under the Employee’sState Insurance
Act, 1948 ?
• (A) Sickness Benefit
• (B) Unemployment Allowance
• (C) Childrens’ Allowance
• (D) Disablement Benefit

Option C
• Before the enactment of Employees’
Compensation Act, 1923, workers suffering a
personal injury in course of employment claimed
damages under
• (A) Economic Law
• (B) Social Law
• (C) Common Law
• (D) None of the above

Option A
• The Royal Commission on Labour examined
which of the two States’Maternity Benefit Acts
andrecommended enactment of similar laws all
over the country ?
• (A) Bombay and Madhya Pradesh
• (B) Madras and Mysore
• (C) Bihar and Bengal
• (D) Punjab and Assam

Option D
• What will be the minimum number of workers
required for organizing a trade union for
registration accordingto the latest amendment
under the Trade Unions’ Act,1926 ?
• (A) 7 workers
• (B) 10 %
• (C) 100
• (D) 10% or 100 or 7

Option C
• The minimum subscription rate for members of
trade unions of rural workers shall not be less
than
• (A) ` 12 per annum
• (B) ` 3 per annum
• (C) ` 1 per annum
• (D) No such provision

Option C
• ‘First come last go and last come first go’ is the
principle of
• (A) Lay-off
• (B) Closure
• (C) Retrenchment
• (D) Dismissal

Option C
• Which of the following statements is not true regarding
Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 ?
• (A) Within 6 months from the date of application of the Act,
the employer shall submit to the Certifying Officer 5 copies
of the draft standing orders.
• (B) There is a schedule which sets out the matters to be
incorporated in the standing orders.
• (C) There is no provision to refer the draft standing orders to
the Unions/Workmen by the Certifying Officer.
• (D) Certifying Officers and appellate authorities shall have
powers of Civil Courts.

Option D
• Which of the following statements with regard to
labour welfare is not correct ?
• (A) Welfare is a social concept.
• (B) Welfare is a relative concept.
• (C) Welfare is a positive concept.
• (D) Welfare is an absolute concept.

Option C
• Which of the following is not an intramural
welfare facility ?
• (A) Canteen
• (B) Workmen safety measures
• (C) Housing facility
• (D) Drinking water facility

Option C
• “The factory and industrial workplaces provide
ample opportunities for owners and managers of
capital to exploit workers in an unfair manner.
This cannot be allowed to continue” is the
philosophy of which theory of Labour Welfare ?
• (A) Placating Theory
• (B) Functional Theory
• (C) Policing Theory
• (D) Religious Theory

Option B
• “A place for everything and everything in its
place” is the principle that governs
• (A) Placement
• (B) Housekeeping
• (C) Officekeeping
• (D) Floor Management

Option D
• Which of the following is not a peculiarity of
labour market ?
• (A) Labour market is normally local in nature.
• (B) The number of buyers is less than the number
of sellers.
• (C) Labour is less mobile.
• (D) Worker can sell not only his own labour but
also the labour of his fellow workers.

Option D
• Which one of the following is not a characteristic
feature of Indian labour force ?
• (A) High rate of absenteeism and
• labour turnover
• (B) Low degree of unionization rate
• (C) Lack of mobility
• (D) Homogeneous in nature

Option D
• Which of the following is not a type of wage
differentials ?
• (A) Occupational
• (B) Geographical
• (C) Industrial
• (D) Social

Option C
• The Concepts of Wages like Minimum Wage, Fair
Wage and Living Wages were given by
• (A) Royal Commission on Labour
• (B) First National Commission on Labour
• (C) Committee on Fair Wages
• (D) Adarkar Committee

Option B
• Which of the following theories of wages was
propounded by Karl Marx ?
• (A) Subsistence Theory
• (B) Surplus Value Theory
• (C) Wage Fund Theory
• (D) Residual Claimant Theory

UGC NET
RELATION
December 2012

Option C
• Which of the following is the major element of
planning process ?
• (A) Developing leadership abilities
• (B) Selecting right people
• (C) Perception of opportunities
• (D) Motivating people

Option C
• Which principle of management is violated by
matrix organisation structure ?
• (A) Division of Labour
• (B) Unity of Direction
• (C) Unity of Command

Option A
• Which of the following involves careful analysis
of inputs and corrective actions before operation
is completed ?
• (A) Feed forward control
• (B) Concurrent control
• (C) Feedback control
• (D) All the above

Option D
• Which of the following is not a semantic barrier
of communication ?
• (A) Faulty translation
• (B) Ambiguous words
• (C) Specialist’s language
• (D) Inattention

Option B
• People should be regarded as assets rather than
variable costs was emphasised in
• (A) Personnel Management
• (B) Human Resource Management
• (C) Personnel Administration
• (D) Public Administration

Option C
• The classical theorists favoured organisation
based on
• (A) Civilian model
• (B) Strategic model
• (C) Military model

Option C
• Job analysis includes :
• (A) Job description and job enlargement
• (B) Job enlargement and job enrichment
• (C) Job description and job specification
• (D) All of the above

Option D
• A test which measures, what it is intended to
measure is
• (A) Reliable test
• (B) Standardised test
• (C) Objective test
• (D) Valid test

Option B
• An enquiry that is conducted afresh because of
the objections raised by alleged employee is
called
• (A) Domestic enquiry
• (B) De-novo enquiry
• (C) Ex-parte enquiry

Option C
• The concept of HRD scorecard was introduced in
India by
• (A) Udai Pareek
• (B) Rao and Pareek
• (C) T.V. Rao
• (D) Arun Honappa

Option D
• Performance appraisal by all the following parties
is called 360 performance appraisal :
• (A) Supervisors and Peers
• (B) Subordinates and Employees themselves
• (C) Users of Service and Consultants

Option B
• The following is the right process of training :
• (A) Instructional design, validation, need analysis,
implementation and evaluation
• (B) Need analysis, instructional design, validation,
• (C) Need analysis, validation, instructional design,
• (D) Instructional design, need analysis,
mplementation, validation and evaluation

Option C
• Fish bone analysis as a tool of quality circle was
advanced by
• (A) Edward Deming
• (B) Joseph Juran
• (C) Kouru Ishi Kawa
• (D) Phillip Crosby

Option C
• Which of the following decreases group
cohesiveness ?
• (A) Agreement on group goals
• (B) Frequency of interaction
• (C) Large group size

Option A
• Managers subscribing to ______ assumptions
attempt to structure, control and closely
supervise their employees.
• (A) Theory ‘X’
• (B) Theory ‘Y’
• (C) Both Theory ‘X’ and Theory ‘Y’
• (D) Neither Theory ‘X’ nor Theory

Option B
• According to Fiedler’s Contingency Model of
Leadership, which one of the following is a
situational variable ?
• (A) Leader – Member relationship
• (B) Organisational System
• (C) Degree of task structure
• (D) Leader’s position power

Option A
• The right sequence of steps in Kurt Lewin’s
change procedure is
• (A) Unfreezing – Moving – Freezing
• (B) Moving – Unfreezing – Freezing
• (C) Unfreezing – Freezing – Moving
• (D) Freezing – Moving – Unfreezing

Option C
• Which of the following is not a traditional
method of organisational development ?
• (A) Survey feedback
• (B) Sensitivity training
• (C) Process consultation
• (D) Managerial grid

Option C
• Who are not the Actors of Industrial Relations ?
• (A) Workers and their organisations
• (B) Employers and their organisations
• (C) Community and cultural associations
• (D) Government and the role of the State

Option C
• Which of the following is a machinery for
settlement of industrial disputes ?
• (A) Indian Labour Conference
• (B) Joint Management Council
• (C) Industrial Tribunal
• (D) Standing Labour Committees

Option A
• A Trade Union means “An association of workers
in one or more professions carried on mainly for
the purpose of protecting and advancing the
members’ economic interest in connection with
their daily work”. Identify the author :
• (A) Sidney and Beatrice Webb
• (B) J. Cunnison
• (C) G.D.H. Cole
• (D) Clyde E. Dankert

Option C
• A union may claim recognition for an industry in
a local area, if it has membership of
• (A) 10% of the workers in that industry.
• (B) 15% of the workers in that area.
• (C) 25% of the workers of that industry in that
area.
• (D) 30% of the workers in similar industry.

Option D
• Who among the following advocated the
Trusteeship Theory of Trade Union ?
• (A) N.M. Lokhande
• (B) B.P. Wadia
• (C) G.L. Nanda
• (D) M.K. Gandhi

Option B
• Inter and intra-union rivalry in Trade Unions is
reduced by
• (A) The provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act
1947
• (B) By voluntary tripartite code of inter-union
rivalry – 1957
• (C) By bipartite mutual agreement at the industry
level
• (D) Above all

Option C
• Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the
Corporation, Standing Committee or the Medical
Council shall cease to be a member of the body if
he fails to attend
• (A) two consecutive meetings
• (B) three meetings intermittently
• (C) three consecutive meetings
• (D) four consecutive meetings

Option D
• Under Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
• (A) individual manager subordinate to an
employer cannot act as managing agent.
• (B) managing agent includes an individual
manager subordinate to an employer.
• (C) only employer can act as managing agent.
• (D) the appropriate government shall appoint
managing agent.

Option D
• The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, the
Maternity Benefit Act, 1965 and the Employees State
Insurance Act, 1948
• (A) together can be applicable.
• (B) the Maternity Benefit Act and the Employees State
Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
• (C) the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the
Employees State
• Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
• (D) if the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the
Maternity Benefit Act are applicable, the Employees
State Insurance Act is not applicable.

Option D
• What is the content of the Schedule I of the ESI
Act, 1948 ?
• (A) List of injuries deemed to result in permanent
total disablement.
• (B) List of injuries deemed to result in permanent
partial disablement.
• (C) List of occupational diseases.

Option B
• A person is qualified to be chosen as a member of
the executive or any other office bearer of the
registered trade union if he attained the age of
• (A) Fifteen years
• (B) Eighteen years
• (C) Twenty one years
• (D) Twenty five years

Option C
• The registered trade union can collect political
fund from its members as a
• (A) general fund
• (B) cannot collect political fund
• (C) separate fund from the interested members
• (D) only from political parties

Option D
• ‘Award’ under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is
• (a) not interim determination of labour court
• (b) not arbitration award under Section 10A
• (c) not final determination of labour court
• (d) not final determination of arbitration award under
section 10A
• (A) All statements are true.
• (B) (a) and (d) are true.
• (C) (b) is true.
• (D) All statements are wrong.

Option B
• The ceiling on wage or salary for calculation of
Bonus under the Payment of Bonus Act 1965 is
• (A) ` 2,500
• (B) ` 3,500
• (C) ` 4,500
• (D) ` 6,500

Option B
• “A desirable state of existence comprehending
physical, mental, moral and emotional health or
well being” is the theme of which concept of
Labour Welfare ?
• (A) Social Concept
• (B) Total Concept
• (C) Relative Concept
• (D) Positive Concept

Option D
• Assertion (A) : Labour Welfare is relative to time
and space.
• Reason (R) : It shall be universal and perpetual.
• (A) Assertion and Reason are right.
• (B) Assertion is wrong and Reason is right.
• (C) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
• (D) Assertion is right but its explanation given in
Reason is wrong.

Option C
• Minimum conditions of welfare is explained by
• (A) Dr. Aykroid’s formula
• (B) Subsistence Theory
• (C) Both (A) and (B)

Option A
• Which of the following is not a principle of
Labour Welfare ?
• (A) The Principle of Uniformity
• (B) The Principle of Co-ordination and Integration
• (C) The principle of Association
• (D) The Principle of Timeliness

Option A
• “Labour is not a commodity” – is the assertion
made by
• (A) the Declaration of Philadelphia adopted by
26th session of ILO
• (B) the Magna Carta
• (C) the Constitution of India
• (D) the International Labour Conference

Option C
• Assertion (A) : Industrial Labour in India has been
migratory.
• Reason (R) : Driving force in migration comes
almost entirely from one end of the channel, that
is the village end.
• (A) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
• (B) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
• (C) (A) is right and (R) also is right.
• (D) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.

Option A
• The “Marginal Discounted Product of Labour” as
a modified version of Marginal Productivity
Theory was advanced by
• (A) Taussig
• (B) Kalecki
• (C) Ricardo
• (D) Adam Smith

UGC NET
RELATION
June 2012

Option D
• Which of the following principles of
management was not given by Fayol ?
• (A) Unity of direction
• (B) Subordination of individual interest to
common interest
• (C) Stability of tenure
• (D) Standardisation

Option D
• Delphi technique is used in
• (A) Organising
• (B) Operating
• (C) Staffing
• (D) Forecasting

Option A
• Narrow span of control results into
• (A) Tall structure
• (B) Flat structure
• (C) Mechanistic structure

Option D
• Which of the following is correct about
‘Grapevine’ ?
• (A) It tends to exist when members of formal
group know one another well.
• (B) It is the result of social forces at work place.
• (C) It is more common in times of high
organisational excitement.

Option B
• The following concept is developed on
unitarism, individualism, high commitment
and strategic alignment.
• (A) Personnel Management
• (B) Human Resource Management
• (C) Industrial Relations
• (D) Personnel Administration

Option D
• Human Resource Planning include
• (A) Scenario planning
• (B) Action planning
• (C) Demand and Supply forecasts

Option D
• Which one is not a part of recruitment
process ?
• (A) Determining requirements
• (B) Planning recruitment campaign
• (C) Attracting candidates
• (D) Selecting candidates

Option C
• Which one is not a non-quantitative job
evaluation method ?
• (A) Ranking method
• (B) Grading method
• (C) Point rating method
• (D) Job-classification method

Option C
• Consider the following punishments in disciplinary actions
:
• (i) Warning
• (ii) Demotion
• (iii) Censure
• (iv) Dismissal
• Which of the above fall under minor punishment ?
• (A) (i) and (ii)
• (B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
• (C) (i) and (iii)
• (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Option D
• Which of the following factors are included in
the calculation of human development index
?
• (A) Life expectancy
• (B) Adult literacy
• (C) Decent standard of living

Option B
• Who is not associated with development of
human development index ?
• (A) Mahabub-ul-Haq
• (B) Manmohan Singh
• (C) Meghnad Desai
• (D) Sudhir Anand

Option C
• The sequence of human resource
development activities according to Leonard
Nadler are
• (A) Education, training and development
• (B) Development, training and education
• (C) Training, education and development
• (D) Training, development and education

Option D
• Who introduced the concept of quality circles
in India ?
• (A) P. V. Rao
• (B) Udai Pareek
• (C) Dharani P. Sinha
• (D) S. R. Udpa

Option A
• Which of the following is the correct
sequence of training evaluation ?
• (A) Reaction, learning, behaviour and results
• (B) Learning, reaction, behaviour and results
• (C) Learning, behaviour, reaction and results
• (D) Reaction, learning, results and behaviour

Option A
• Which of the following is the outcome of job
satisfaction ?
• (A) High employee turnover
• (B) High productivity
• (C) Absenteeism

Option D
• Under Alderfer’s ERG theory, the three core
needs are
• (A) Emotional, Relational, and Growth
• (B) Emotional, Rational and Growth
• (C) Existence, Reliability and Gain
• (D) Existence, Relatedness and Growth

Option C
• The group to which a person would like to
belong is known as
• (A) Primary Group
• (B) Membership Group
• (C) Reference Group

Option D
• The Managerial Grid was given by
• (A) Rensis Likert
• (B) Kurt Lewin
• (C) Hersey Blanchard
• (D) Blake and Mouton

Option A
• Arrange the following stages of group dynamics in
right sequence :
• a. Norming
• b. Performing
• c. Storming
• d. Forming
• (A) d, c, a, b
• (B) a, b, c, d
• (C) d, c, b, a
• (D) c, d, b, a

Option D
• Identify the correct definition of industrial
relations :
• (A) Relations between or among human beings
• (B) Relations between employer and employees
as individuals
• (C) Relations between parties in an employment
context
• (D) Collective relationship between management
and trade unions

Option C
• Who has propounded the system concept of
industrial relations ? Find out from the
following :
• (A) L. N. Allen Flander
• (B) L. N. Flax
• (C) John T. Dunlop
• (D) Neil N. Chamberlein

Option B
• Which is the correct order of settlement of industrial
disputes ?
• a. Industrial Tribunal
• b. National Tribunal
• c. Conciliation
• d. Labour Court
• (A) c, a, d, b
• (B) c, d, a, b
• (C) a, d, c, b
• (D) c, b, d, a

Option A
• Which of the following is not a Tripartite body
?
• (A) Works Committee
• (B) I. L. O
• (C) Indian Labour Conference
• (D) Wage Boards

Option B
• The code of discipline was ratified by the
Indian Labour Conference to ensure discipline
in industry. Identify the year of ratification
out of the following :
• (A) 1957
• (B) 1958
• (C) 1942
• (D) 1962

Option C
• Which of the following is not a characteristics of
Trade Union ?
• (A) Is an association of employers or the
employees or of the independent workers ?
• (B) Is relatively a permanent combination but not
temporary or casual.
• (C) Is an association of workers who are engaged
in not securing economic benefits for their
members.
• (D) Is influenced by a member of ideologies.

Option C
• Recognition of trade union is made by the
provision of
• (A) Trade Unions Act of 1926
• (B) Industrial Dispute Act 1947
• (C) Code of Discipline
• (D) Factories Act of 1948

Option D
• Which is not a structure of Trade Union of
Industrial Organisation ?
• (A) Craft union
• (B) General union
• (C) Industrial union
• (D) Consumers’ union

Option D
• A Trade Union should be registered as per the
law must have
• (A) 20% of the workers
• (B) 150 workmen
• (C) Minimum 17 persons

Option B
• The founder of Ahmedabad Textile Labour
Association was
• (A) V. V. Giri
• (B) M. K. Gandhi
• (C) B. P. Wadia
• (D) N. M. Lokhande

Option B
• If there is wilful removal or disregard by the
workman of any safety guard or other device
which he knew to have been provided for the
purpose of securing safety of workman,
• (A) Employer is liable to pay compensation
• (B) Employer is not liable to pay compensation
• (C) Appropriate government is liable to pay
compensation
• (D) The Trade Union is liable to pay compensation

Option A
• The maternity leave period with full wage is
• (A) six months
• (B) twelve weeks
• (C) four months
• (D) sixteen weeks

Option B
• The goal of I LO is
• (A) creation of jobs for men and women
• (B) not just creation of jobs but the creation of
jobs of acceptable quality
• (C) not overcoming under employment
• (D) not to provide freedom of choice in
employment

Option D
• The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 is applicable
to an employee who draws wage or salary of
• (A) ` 3500 in case of apprentice
• (B) ` 5000 in case of apprentice and employee
• (C) ` 7500 in case of employee only
• (D) ` 10,000 in case of employee only

Option C
• Unfair Labour Practices are listed in
• (A) the Factories Act, 1948.
• (B) the Industrial Employment (Standing
Orders) Act, 1946.
• (C) the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
• (D) the Trade Unions Act, 1926.

Option D
• The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 has
• (A) one schedule covering different types of
industries.
• (B) one schedule covering different types of
industries, shops and establishments.
• (C) one schedule covering shops and
establishments.
• (D) two schedules covering industrial
establishments and agriculture.

Option B
• If deduction is made contrary to the provisions of the
Payment of Wages Act, 1936 the aggrieved employee
can write to the inspector appointed under the Act
within the time period given below from the date on
which the deduction from wages was made or the
date on which the payment of wages is due
• (A) two years
• (B) one year
• (C) twelve weeks
• (D) six weeks

Option C
• The maximum daily hours of work in a day
with normal wage allowed in factories is
• (A) 11 hours
• (B) 10 hours
• (C) 9 hours
• (D) 8 hours

Option C
• Assertion (A) : Intra-mural and extramural
welfare are mutually
• complimentary.
• Reason (R) : The work-life balances need to be
ensured in order to get the best output from an
employee.
• (A) Assertion is wrong but Reason is logical.
• (B) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
• (C) Assertion and Reason are right.
• (D) The Assertion is right but Reason is wrong.

Option A
• Which of the following statements is not true in
explaining the concept and scope of labour welfare ?
• (A) Labour welfare has no roots in social work.
• (B) Long Arm of the job and social invasion of
workplace’ concepts, explain the mutuality between
intramural and extramural labour welfare
• (C) Labour welfare is a social concept.
• (D) Corporate social responsibility is an extended
concept of welfare.

Option D
• Who is the champion of the ‘Welfare
movement’ propagated in mid 19th century ?
• (A) Frederick Winslow Taylor
• (B) Andrew Ure
• (C) Sheebhom Rownlvee
• (D) Robert Owners

Option A
• Sequence the following developments by their period
of occurrence from earliest to the latest :
• (i) The Labour Investigation Committee
• (ii) The Whitley Commission
• (iii) The Enactment of Factories Act
• (iv) The 1st National Commission on Labour
• (A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
• (B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
• (C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
• (D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

Option B
• Which of the following statements relating to Welfare
Officer is not true
• (A) The provision of Welfare Officer is given in both the
Factories Act, 1948 and the Mines Act, 1952.
• (B) Welfare Officer’s duties and responsibilities are
defined and prescribed in the legislation.
• (C) Welfare Officer’s appointment is tagged to the
provision of minimum workforce employed in an
organisation
• (D) The Welfare Officer’s role was designed as a ‘Third
force’.

Option D
characteristics of labour is not true ?
• (A) Labour is a perishable commodity.
• (B) Labour cannot be separated from the
person.
• (C) Workers have no reserve price.
• (D) Labour is as flexible and mobile as capital.

Option D
• Which of the following statements about labour
market is not true ?
• (A) Labour market like commodity market is analyzed by
supply, demand and price equilibrium.
• (B) Labour Market is relatively more local than
commodity market.
• (C) Unlike a commodity market, the relationship
between a buyer and seller in a labour market is not
temporary.
• (D) Monopoly in the labour market is high.

Option C
• Money Wage is otherwise called as
• (A) Real wage
• (B) Living wage
• (C) Nominal wage
• (D) Fair wage

Option C
• Wage Boards set right
• (A) Inter-regional differentials
• (B) Inter-sectoral differentials
• (C) Intra-industry differentials
• (D) Inter-industry differentials

Option D
• Which of the following is not a determinant
of wages ?
• (A) Prevailing wages
• (B) Bargaining strength of Unions
• (C) Job Evaluation
• (D) Performance Appraisal

UGC NET
RELATION
Sample Paper 1

preferred provider organizations
• Type of managed care plan in which health care
service provider fulfills services at competitive
rates to group of employers is classified as
• preferred provider organizations
• defined maintenance organization
• health maintenance organizations
• non preferred provider organization

health maintenance organizations
• Type of managed care plan in which health care
service providers gives services on prepaid basis
for fixed period of time is classified as
• defined maintenance organization

utilization review
• Audit of costs and services of all bills of health
care providers is classified as
• productivity review
• profitability review
• utilization review
• wellness review

both a and c
• Types of managed care includes
• both a and c

co-payment strategy
• In controlling health care benefits cost, strategy in
which employees have to pay cost of medical care
and insurance premiums is classified as
• co-payment strategy
• deferred payment strategy
• Keogh vesting strategy
• deferred vesting strategy

all of above
• Concept in which whole or part of yearly pay
increase is paid as single payment is called
• consumer price index adjustment
• lump sum increase
• cost of living adjustment
• all of above

compa-ratio
• Ratio in which pay level is divided by pay
range midpoint is classified as
• primacy ratio
• regression ratio
• matrix ratio
• compa-ratio

seniority
• Time spent in organization while performing
particular job is classified as
• seniority
• career maturity
• career equity
• non equity

maturity curve
• Curve which is used to represent relationship
between pay rate and experience is classified
as
• equity curve
• maturity curve
• experience curve
• seniority curve

125
• If mid-point is 20 and current pay of an
employee is INR25 then compo ratio is
• 75
• 225
• 125
• 25

job design
• In an organization, arrangement of duties,
responsibilities and tasks to accomplish
desired results is classified as
• job design
• validation design
• reliability design
• rethinking design

job rotation
• In an organization, technique of shifting an
individual employee from one job to another
is considered as
• job retooling
• job rethinking
• job redesigning
• job rotation

quality circle
• Group of employees in an organization who
suggests solutions to quality and productivity
problems is classified as
• productivity monitors
• suggestion group
• idea group
• quality circle

skill variety
• Extent to which different tasks are required to
complete work successfully is classified as
• skill variety
• job variety
• design variety
• enrichment variety

self-directed work team
• Team composed with cluster of assigned tasks,
responsibilities and duties that must be
successfully accomplished is classified as
• provisional managers
• validity team
• self-directed work team
• production cells

behavioral modeling
• Elementary way of employee learning in which
employees of an organization copy behaviors
of some one else is classified as
• behavioral modeling
• active modeling
• spaced modeling
• massed modeling

visual learners
• Type of learners who focus on graphics and
process and purpose of training are classified
as
• massed learners
• visual learners
• auditory learners
• tactile learners

tactile learners
• Kind of learners who uses training resources
by getting their hands on task are classified as
• massed learners
• visual learners

auditory learners
• Kind of learners who take keen interest in
information told by someone about training
content are classified as
• massed learners
• visual learners

delivery of training
• Completion time of training, cost of resources
and number of trainees are variables that
must be considered in
• selection of employees
• delivery of productivity
• delivery of training
• delivery of performance

e-learning
• Usage of internet for training employees of an
organization is classified as
• compression training
• e-learning
• outsource learning
• supported learning

intranet
• Private organizational network which limits
access of information to authorized users is
classified as
• informal network
• wide area network
• extranet
• intranet

on job training
• ost flexible type of training in which employees
are trained while performing tasks and
responsibilities associated with job is classified as
• informal training
• formal training
• on job training
• off job training

do follow up
• In employee training, last stage for trainee's
on-the-job training is to
• present information
• prepare learners
• do follow up
• practice of trainees

flexible spending account
• Account which allows employees to buy
additional benefits by contributing pretax
dollars is classified as
• fixed spending account
• flexible spending account
• contributory spending account
• non contributory spending account

adverse selection
• Situation in which higher risk employees use
and select special benefits is classified as
• flexible selection
• non contributory plan
• adverse selection
• contributory plan

performance consulting
• ss in which organizational client and job
trainer work together to support business
goals is classified as
• performance and training integration
• performance identification
• performance consulting
• individual interaction

training
• Systematic procedure in which people contribute
in organizational goals achievement by acquiring
capabilities is classified as
• training
• planning
• staffing
• hiring

administered wages and salaries
• Performance appraisals are basically used by
organizations to
• defining needed capabilities
• administered wages and salaries
• recruiting employees
• fulfilling staffing needs

performance appraisal
• Employee evaluation, performance
evaluation, performance review and employee
rating are all terms used to define
• criterion appraisal
• employee development appraisal
• performance appraisal
• subjective appraisal

administrative uses
• Uses of performance appraisals such as
compensation, downsizing, layoffs and
promotion are classified as
• systematic uses
• subjective uses
• development uses
• administrative uses

systematic appraisal
• If relationship between employee and
manager during performance appraisal then
this type of appraisal is classified as
• systematic appraisal
• administrative appraisal
• subjective appraisal
• administrative appraisal

development uses
• Uses of performance appraisals such as coaching
and career planning, identifying strengths and
areas for growth are classified as uses of
• systematic uses
• subjective uses
• development uses
• administrative uses

Keogh plan
• Pension plan which is for self-employed
employees and is usually individualized is
classified as
• portability account
• vesting account
• Keogh plan
• individual retirement account

relocation benefits
• Types of pension plans does not includes
• employee retirement income security act
• cash balance plans
• traditional pension plans
• relocation benefits

portability
• Feature attached to pension plans for employees
through which employees can move their
pension benefit from one employer to an other
employer is called
• portability
• Keogh plan
• vesting
• nesting

pension plans
• Retirement benefits that are planned and
funded by employees and employers are
called
• pension plans
• defined contribution plan
• non defined contribution
• contributory plan

UGC NET - Question Bank - Fully Solved - More than 1500 Objective type/Multiple Choice questions With answer keys - Manu Melwin Joy

UGC NET - Question Bank - Fully Solved - More than 1500 Objective type/Multiple Choice questions With answer keys - Manu Melwin Joy

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Similaire à UGC NET - Question Bank - Fully Solved - More than 1500 Objective type/Multiple Choice questions With answer keys - Manu Melwin Joy (20)

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UGC NET - Question Bank - Fully Solved - More than 1500 Objective type/Multiple Choice questions With answer keys - Manu Melwin Joy