PMP assessment exam 1.1

© Dove Cote Enterprises2008 All RightsReserved
DOVE COTE ENTERPRISES
How Good Is Your Project
Management Knowledge?
A self assessment guide to best practices
12/3/2008

© Dove Cote Enterprises 2008 All Rights Reserved Page 2
FOREWORD
The purpose of this document is to allow project managers and those who aspire to be
project managers a value-priced tool for assessing their current level of knowledge in the
profession. The author (a PMP) has worked in the field of project management for over
twenty-five years. During that time, he has seen the Project Management Professional
(PMP) designation evolve from being almost a second thought for project managers in the
construction industry into becoming a requirement or a ‘desire to have’ for project
management in all industries. Though this does not profess to be a PMP preparatory exam,
it does closely follow the Project Management Institute’s (PMI) Project Management Body of
Knowledge (PMBOK). One can be a very competent project manager without having the
PMP. Today, however, most organizations (especially large ones) adhere to at least some
form of the PMBOK structure and that has influenced the wording of the questions.
Many have made the PMP a requirement for entry of new project management applicants.
If part of the reason for the purchase of this product is to prepare for the PMP qualification
exam, the author strongly advises that one take advantage of every test preparation
resource that fits within his budget, utilizing books, boot camps, online/on campus courses,
exam CD’s, etc. Customer reviews and testimonials for all resources are great for
determining how to allocate your budget. Though the author passed on the first try, he
personally discovered that one cannot be overly prepared, having taken many test exams
and a prep course (scoring extremely high on all) as well as utilizing several reference
books prior to its undertaking. The actual exam is not the same and it is a challenge.
For those who may fear this is a replay of someone else’s (or all’s) copyrighted material,
nothing from any of those has been copied for this work. It is meant to be another view to a
multi-dimensional discipline and concept.
HOW TO USE THIS DOCUMENT
This assessment also uses various methods of presenting information, possible answers
and response choices. Read each over carefully as it is easy to get tripped up when having
to consider responses with multiple right answers. Refer to question 78 as an example.
For those who may use this as a prep test, this is consistent with the PMP exam as you will
face many different looks. You will note there is no Table of Contents which is intentional.
A random mixing of the questions was used as we feel such an approach will better reflect
true knowledge of the subject matter rather than using a sequential approach through
phases, knowledge areas and processes individually. Many of the questions will present
possible answers from marginally or non-pertinent subject matter. The explanation of the
right answer will explain why the others were not correct, thus covering more than one topic
within a single question.
There is no passing or failing. Errors should be noted and reviewed to determine particular
areas of weakness and strength for further study. In your particular role or industry, you
may determine the deficiency is not pertinent. However, should you wish to change jobs,
you may find the area of weakness has become a requirement.

NOTE: Some questions will appear to use process groups and phases almost
interchangeably. The author’s experience is that this is common depending on the
organization and uses it for the benefit of the user.
1. Which of the following is not a project management knowledge area?
a. Time Management
b. Communications Management
c. Schedule Management
d. Procurement Management
e. Risk Management
Answer: c. Schedule management is included in Time Management
2. Which of the following could be considered projects?
Researching new technologies/products
Implementing a software solution
Changing all corporate collateral to use new marketing standards
Building a back-up power plant
Upgrading desktop productivity tools
a. All of the above
b. Some of the above
c. None of the above
Answer: a. All of the above could be projects if they require mobilizing people into a team,
have limited time or resource constraints, and have specific defined deliverables or
expected results.
3. A project manager with a full-time role and a part-time administrative staff would be
considered to be in a ________________ matrix.
a. Weak
b. Collaborative
c. Balanced
d. Strong
Answer: c. Balanced; in a weak matrix, both the PM and his staff are part-time, all are full-
time in a strong matrix, and there is no such thing as a collaborative matrix.

5. All of the following are project management process groups except:
Initiating
Funding
Closing
Planning
Controlling
Executing
QA
a. Closing and Funding
b. Controlling and QA
c. QA and Funding
d. Controlling
Answer: c. QA and Funding are not recognized as distinct processes. QA is included in the
Controlling process and Funding is part of Initiation.
6. The purpose of the Initiation phase is to:
A. To authorize the project or phase
B. To identify the project team
C. To provide interim checkpoints to ensure the project remains focused on the business
need
D. To get funding approval for the project
a. A only
b. B & D
c. A & C
d. All of the above
Answer: b. At the start of a project, the objective is to authorize the commencement of the
effort. Prior to each new phase, the project is assessed to ensure it is still meeting the
business need and the business need is still valid. Phase assessments may initiate change
controls if changes are necessary to meet business objectives. B & D are usually part of the
planning process as the scope is defined and resource/staffing plans and cost estimates are
produced. Funding approval in the Initiation process usually covers the costs to define the
scope and magnitude of the total effort.
7. A properly executed project addresses all the process groups within each knowledge
area.
a. True

b. False
Answer: False. Knowledge areas only use the processes pertinent to their domains. For
instance, Scope management is addressed in the Initiation, Planning and Controlling phases
while Quality management is part of the Planning, Execution and Controlling phases.
8. The following is not considered to be a project management process:
a. Project
b. Quality
c. Product
Answer: b. Project processes are those used to define and organize the project effort;
product processes are those used to specify and produce the end products and deliverables
of the project (the outputs by which the project will be considered a success). Quality
management is a knowledge area which would have its own product and project processes.
9. Stakeholders are those individuals or organizations who are actively involved in the
project.
a. True
b. False
Answer: False. Stakeholders also include those whose interests will be impacted by the
project, either positively or negatively. Example: A bank is changing all its ATMs to a new
physical look along with new and different menus for executing transactions. The customer
is a stakeholder but not an active member of the project team even though the result of the
project may have a positive or negative impact on him.
10. Which of the following are various project lifecycles?
A. Waterfall
B. Fast tracking
C. Parallel
D. Iterative
Which of the following is the correct answer?
a. A & D
b. A, C & D
c. A & B
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above

11. Integration management includes the following processes:
A. Plan Development
B. Plan Execution
C. Initiation
D. Integrated Change Control
a. All the above
b. A, B, & C
c. A, B & D
d. A & D only
Answer: c. Initiation is included in Scope Management. All of the others are part of
Integration Management.
12. The following are outputs of the Initiation process:
A. Assignment of the project manager
B. Product description
C. Constraints
D. Assumptions
a. B, C & D
b. A, C & D
c. A, B & D
d. All of the above
Answer: b. Product description is an input to the initiation process. Along with the project
charter, project manager assignment, constraints and assumptions are all outputs.
13. The purpose of Integration management is:
a. To ensure that the elements of scope, time, and cost are all documented.
b. To ensure that all project elements are properly coordinated.
c. To ensure that project communications include all stakeholders.
d. To ensure that the project is completed on time and on budget.
Answer: b. The integrated project plan should address all the other knowledge areas as well
as those listed above. Choice a. only covers three of the nine knowledge areas; c. is a

single component of the project; and d., though very important, does not take into account
all the attributes of a successful project.
14. Scope definition:
a. Produces a written scope document
b. Produces sign-off by the project stakeholders
c. Subdivides the major deliverables into smaller and more manageable components
Answer: c. The written scope document (a.) is produced in scope planning and agreement
by the stakeholders (c.) is achieved in scope verification. Both a. and c. are components of
the Planning process.
15. The purpose of Scope management is:
a. To assure that the scope is properly defined
b. To ensure that all the work is successfully completed and only the approved work is
performed
c. To produce a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
d. All of the above
Answer: d. As part of Scope management, choices a. and c. are determined during the
Planning process and b. carries that through to project completion by including the
Controlling processes of verification and change control.
16. Distributing information to stakeholders is included in which process group?
a. Planning
b. Execution
c. Controlling
Answer: b. In the Planning process (a.), the communications plan is developed and
performance reporting of the results (such as during Execution) in the Controlling process
(c.) is used to communicate how the project is meeting its stated objectives.
17. To determine if a proposed project should be approved, the evaluation team should
consider:
A. A product description of what will be produced as a result of the project
B. How the project satisfies overall business goals as defined by the strategic plan

C. The selection criteria for determining how the project fits within the organizational culture
and needs
D. Historic information to better understand the cost/benefit effect from previous similar
projects.
a. All of the above
b. B & C
c. A, B & D
d. A, C & D
Answer: a. All of the above are inputs for the decision process to authorize a new project.
18. The main purpose for organizations to use benefits measurement as a decision tool is:
a. To determine the net present value of expected gains from the project
b. To determine the highest overall return
c. To measure risk factors and tolerance against probability of success
d. To compare the investment and value of projects against each other and organizational
objectives.
a. A only
b. B only
c. A & B
d. D
Answer: D. Whereas a, b and c are different methods for conducting benefits measurement,
the main reason is to best allocate limited resources to projects best satisfying
organizational objectives. The other choices may be ways of gauging values against
standards or thresholds as defined by the organization’s objectives.
19. Who is responsible for securing funding for the project?
a. The Executive Committee
b. The Project Sponsor
c. The Project Manager
d. The Customer
Answer: b. The Project Sponsor grants the authority to perform the project, securing the
funding and, ultimately, is responsible for the project’s success or failure. An Executive
Committee may have to approve the funding request and the Customer may end up paying
for the project. The Project Manager and project team may develop the estimates that make
up the funding request but would not be responsible for obtaining the funding.

20. In developing the project’s objectives, SMART stands for:
a. Special, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic and Timely
b. Specific, Measurable, Accurate, Realistic and Timely
c. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Risk-averse and Timely
d. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic and Timely
Answer: d.
21. Organizations use the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) to:
A. To determine how much a future income stream must be discounted in order to produce
a net present value of 0
B. To measure a project against a defined threshold for undertaking it
C. To compare projects of diverse scopes and sizes
D. To compare the projected IRR against external investment options
a. B
b. B & C
c. A, B & C
d. All of the above
Answer: d. Unless there is an overriding strategic reason for undertaking a project, an
organization may opt to invest available funds externally if the returns are higher than its
proposed project or projects. The defined threshold (B) may be set against an external return
for a project to be considered.
22. The bulk of the project management processes are undertaken in which phase?
a. Initiating
b. Planning
c. Executing
d. Controlling
Answer: b. The bulk of the project management processes are undertaken in Planning
though the bulk of the work is performed in Executing.
23. The scope statement includes all the following except:
a. The project product
b. Project deliverables
c. Assumptions

d. Exclusions from scope
e. The frequency of status meetings
Answer: e. Status meetings and reports are defined in the Communications Plan. All the
others are critical components of a good scope document. Other critical components
include the project justification, its objectives and identified constraints.
24. How project scope will be managed and changes integrated into the project is:
a. Part of the scope statement
b. Included in the Communications Plan
c. Would be considered supporting detail
d. The scope management plan
Answer: d.
25. The method for ranking and comparing a list of alternatives to each other is called:
a. Benefit-cost analysis
b. Scoring
c. Pair-wise comparison
d. Peer review
Answer: c. In pair-wise comparison, each alternative is compared to the other and the better
one selected. In benefit-cost analysis, the costs and benefits of different approaches are
determined. This could, in turn, be used in pair-wise comparison. Peer reviews collect the
expert opinions from other sources, both inside and outside the project. Scoring models
provide the means to track and weigh the benefits of the alternatives.
26. Sub-dividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components is:
A. Known as decomposition
B. May result in updating the scope statement
C. Conducted in scope definition
D. Is critical in defining the performance measurement baseline
a. A.
b. B
c. A & C
d. All the above
Answer: d.

27. Organizing and defining the total scope of the project into logical deliverable-oriented
groupings:
A. Results in a work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Identifies lower level work packages for estimating costs and assigning resources
C. Ties the work to be performed to project objectives
D. Helps minimize detailed documentation
a. All the above
b. A & C
c. B& C
d. A, B & C
Answer: d. The WBS (A) forces more detailed planning and documentation for better
execution and control.
28. The work package:
A. Is a deliverable at the lowest level of the WBS, therefore the lowest level at which the
work is measured and controlled
B. May be subdivided into activities
C. Has a single owner
D. Is defined as the statement of work for a subcontractor or other third party
Which of the following is correct?
a. A & C
b. A, B & C
c. D
d. All of the above
Answer: b. Though a work package may be part of a subcontractor’s statement of work, it is
neither a requirement nor the definition of a work package. The subcontractor may have a
turnkey scope of work, making his individual work packages transparent to the project
manager. Detailed activity schedules, cost reporting and milestones are used to manage the
subcontractor’s overall progress against project objectives.
29. A work package can result in multiple schedule activities and a schedule activity can
encompass multiple work packages. True or false?
a. True
b. False
Answer: b. False; by being the lowest level of the WBS, a work package’s corresponding
cost elements and schedule tasks/activities are distinct to it.

30. After the WBS has been developed, the next step is to:
A. Define the specific activities that must be performed to meet project objectives
B. Use the activity list to produce the project network diagram
C. Create the supporting detail as necessary for each activity that must be performed
D. Move into the time planning process of activity definition
a. A, B & D
b. A & D
c. A, C & D
d. All the above
Answer: c. The project network diagram is an output of the activity sequencing process, a
later step.
31. Some of the tools and techniques used in activity sequencing are:
A. Network templates
B. Precedence diagramming methods (PDM)
C. Conditional diagramming methods
D. Activity Lists
a. A, B & C
b. A, B & D
c. B, C & D
d. All of the above
Answer: a. Activity lists are an input. Some organizations have standard activity templates
and naming conventions (A). PDM (B) is a common diagramming method for sequencing
activities into an overall project schedule. Conditional diagramming methods include
uncertainty into the activity planning process. PERT is an example of this.
32. The difference between the precedence diagramming method (PDM) and the activity
diagramming method is:
A. ADM may require dummy activities and is therefore a less preferred method
B. In PDM, nodes are activities and arrows are dependencies which is the opposite in ADM
C. PDM allows for more dependency types
D. ADM allows for more detailed activity sequencing
a. A, B & C
b. B, C & D
c. A, C & D
d. B & C

Answer: d. Though PDM is more commonly used for activity sequencing, the use of dummy
activities does not, in itself, make it a less preferred diagramming technique (A). PDM allows
for finish to start, finish to finish, start to start and start to finish dependency types whereas
ADM only uses finish to start. The level of detail in activity sequencing is dictated by the
level required to measure and control the work being accomplished and is not an attribute of
one method over the other.
33. Estimating activity durations takes into account:
A. The amount of time that must elapse for the work to be complete
B. The work time required to complete the activity
C. The productivity and skill levels of those performing the work
D. Should consider the impact of risk to activity duration
a. A, B & C
b. B & C
c. B, C & D
d. All of the above
Answer: d. An example is the pouring of concrete. The setup and pouring of the concrete
would take into account the work time required and the productivity/ skillsets of the crew
(based upon historical information and/or expert opinion). The curing of the concrete would
be based upon elapsed time as it has nothing to do with designated work schedules. Time
of season and projected weather forecasts bring risk into play as the probability that the
work can be undertaken on the days scheduled.
34. At the completion of estimating activity durations, the project team should have
documented the basis of the estimates and updated the activity list. True or false?
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. Documenting the basis of estimates and updating the activity list are outputs of
the process of estimating activity durations.
35. Resource pools, calendars and risk management plans are inputs to:
A. Estimating activity durations
B. The schedule development process
C. The schedule management plan
D. Are used in project schedule simulation exercises
a. A & B

b. C
c. B & C
d. B & D
Answer: d. Estimating activity durations is part of the process preceding schedule
development (a). The schedule management plan (b) is an output of the schedule
development process, requiring the utilization of schedule development tools and
techniques to be applied to the above inputs and would not be the preferred answer. These
inputs (d) are part of the schedule development process and are utilized in project
simulation exercises in evaluating schedule alternatives.
36. Assumptions and constraints may include:
A. The availability of workers at the required times
B. Timely procurement of required materials
C. Imposed dates
D. The use of overtime (or lack of it) as an option to meet schedule
a. A & B
b. A, B & D
c. All of the above
Answer: c. Imposed dates on work such as a drop dead date to meet time to market
requirements ( i.e., Christmas retail season for a new toy line) or equipment retooling to be
done during a scheduled plant shutdown should be documented and accounted for in the
schedule. Overtime may be scheduled into the project schedule upfront, held out as a
contingency for schedule recovery or specified as not optional for any reason.
37. Compressing activity and schedule duration:
A. Utilizes mathematical analysis to discover ways to shorten the project schedule within
the defined scope
B. Should result in lower project cost
C. May be required to meet imposed dates
D. Looks at lag and lead times as opportunities for compression
a. A & C
b. A, B & C
c. A, C & D
d. All the above
Answer: a. Compressing duration may result in lower costs but not necessarily so (B). Often
the reverse is true in that there is a cost to compression. Lag and lead times (D) are used
as non-working time ‘spacers’ between activities such as concrete curing or paint drying.

There may be some opportunity for compressions by using drying units or fans in these
cases but these may not be physical or cost effective options.
38. Bar charts:
A. Are time scaled diagrams showing the lapsed time of project activities
B. Reflect effort and resources required for activity completion
C. Are commonly known as Gantt charts
D. Take into account project calendars and resource limitations in showing the activity
duration bars.
a. A & C
b. A, B & C
c. A, C & D
d. All of the above
Answer: c. Bar charts may display resources required for an activity but do not reflect the
effort involved. Bar charts do use project calendars for displaying the time required for an
activity and can take into account limited resource availability through resource leveling
exercises.
39. The difference between free float and total float is:
a. Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early
start of the immediately following activities and total float the amount of time an activity
can be delayed from its early start without delaying the project finish date
b. Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early
start of the immediately following activities and total float the amount of time an activity
can be delayed from its late start without delaying the project finish date
c. Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the late start
of the immediately following activities and total float the amount of time an activity can
be delayed from its early start without delaying the project finish date
d. Free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the late start
of the immediately following activities and total float the amount of time an activity can
be delayed from its late start without delaying the project finish date
Answer: a.
40. The critical path of a project is:
A. The earliest a project can complete
B. Shows the latest dates that individual activities can start without affecting the project end
date
C. Shows how task interdependencies affect start dates
D. Remains fixed throughout the project

a. A
b. A & B
c. A, B & C
d. All of the above
Answer: c. The critical path of a project can change throughout the life of the project as
critical tasks may get ahead of schedule and/or non-critical tasks fail to complete as
scheduled, using up available float or slack. The baselined timeline of the project may
remained fixed throughout the project (D) but, based upon real progress or lack thereof, the
critical path is dynamic.
41. Determining the physical resources required, their respective quantities and when they
should be utilized is called:
a. Cost management
b. Resource planning
c. Cost estimating
d. Cost budgeting
Answer: b. This is the definition of resource planning. Cost management is the umbrella
process consisting of resource planning, cost estimating and cost budgeting. The output of
resource planning is an input into cost estimating.
42. Tools and techniques used in cost estimating are:
A. Analogous estimating
B. Parametric modeling
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Budget breakdowns
a. All of the above
b. A & C
c. B, C & D
d. A, B & C
Answer: d. Analogous estimating is a form of expert judgment when historical data is
absent and is more appropriate in the early stages of a project. Parametric modeling derives
from historical cost factors such as $/SF, $/CY, 3X Equipment Costs. Bottoms up estimating
is a detailed estimate developed at the lowest level of the WBS and depends upon
completed detailed design and schedules for the project. Budget breakdowns as a tool and
technique are a made up answer.
43. Lifecycle costs are defined as :

a. Acquisition costs
b. Ownership costs
c. Acquisition plus ownership costs
d. Acquisition plus ownership plus disposal costs
Answer: d
44. The estimating team presents its estimate to executive oversight for review and
approval. They believe it to be accurate within a range of -10% to +25%. This would be
a __________ estimate:
a. Order of magnitude
b. Control
c. Definitive
d. Estimate at completion
Answer: b. Control estimates can also be known as budget, appropriation, or design
estimates. These are produced in the early planning stages. Order of magnitude estimates
are within the -25% to +75% range, definitive estimates within the -5% to +10% range.
Estimate at completion is an estimate of what the final cost of a project will be based upon
performance factors of a project already in progress.
45. Resource pools may include equipment and indirect resources such as inspectors.
a. True
b. False; resource pools only include the actual personnel performing the work
c. False; resource pools can include indirect labor but no non-labor resources
d. False; resource pools may include non-labor resources (i.e., equipment) but not indirect
labor such as inspectors which are considered level of effort and thus not a manageable
resource
Answer: a. Any resource required for the project that is not considered limitless, thus
needing to be scheduled and controlled, can be included in a resource pool.
46. Procurement planning:
A. Is best done during scope definition
B. Determines which services are best provided internally and which should come from
external sources through make or buy analysis
C. Is part of the estimating process
D. Is not necessary if the project team can perform all the work on the project
Which of the following is the correct answer:
a. A, B & C

b. B & C
c. A, B & D
d. All of the above
Answer: c. Procurement planning is part of the Procurement management knowledge area
whereas cost estimating is part of the Cost management knowledge area. Procurement
planning may be performed in parallel with estimating activities but it is separate from them.
If all the work can be self-performed, there is no procurement to plan (D).
47. A project manager is about award a contract for a small custom fabrication job valued at
$550. In order to save time, he instructs the procurement officer to use a purchase order,
avoiding the red tape of preparing a subcontract. Will this approach be legally binding?
a. Yes
b. No
Answer: No. Contract law states that a sale over $500 must be in writing to be legally
binding. In this case, the reality may be that there is minimal risk of default or non-
performance and proceeding expeditiously may be a determining factor, but from a technical
and legal viewpoint, it is not legally binding. The purchase order may also be necessary in
addition to become incorporated into cost management and reporting systems.
48. Proposal evaluation criteria:
A. Should be objective
B. Can include subjective criteria
C. Are meant to allow the best decision to be made
D. Are meant to allow a fair decision to be made
a. A & C
b. A & D
c. A, B & C
d. All of the above
Answer: d.
49. The following are contract types except:
a. Unit price
b. Cost reimbursable
c. Fixed price
d. Best efforts
Answer: d

50. The difference between a contract and a purchase order is:
A. Purchase orders are used for materials and contracts are meant for services
B. A contract is mutually binding whereas a purchase order only obligates the buyer to pay
if and when the specified goods or services are delivered
C. A purchase order specifies payment terms such as discounts, freight allowances and
remittance due dates whereas a contract does not
a. A
b. B
c. A & C
d. All of the above
Answer: b. Both purchase orders and contracts can be used for materials and/or services.
Contracts often include sections defining payment terms such as listed above. By being
mutually binding, the contract can include provisions for penalties and/or damages resulting
from non-performance.
51. Human resource management is a distinct function on a project because:
A. Personal and organizational relationships are new and temporary
B. The project manager may not be aware of all the regulations that then organization must
be in compliance
C. The constitution of project teams may change over the course of the project
D. A team member’s role and assigned responsibilities may not exactly line up with those of
his ‘real’ job.
a. A & C
b. A, B & C
c. A, C & D
d. All of the above
Answer: d. Along with not being aware of all regulatory requirements, the project manager
may not be aware of all the other HR administrative policies and procedures. Projects by
definition are temporary and dynamic, requiring a specialized approach to teams, team
members and their respective project roles and responsibilities.
52. The project organization structure should always mirror that of the corporate culture.
a. True
b. False

Answer: b. The project organizational structure does not have to mirror the corporate
culture, but, the more it deviates from that culture, the more potential for conflict and the
more attention it should receive in the risk management plan.
53. A project manager has a former project manager as a team member. He often directs
the tasks of others without clearing it with the current manager. This would be an example
of:
a. An organizational interface
b. A technical interface
c. An indirect management interface
d. An interpersonal interface
Answer: d. An organizational interface represents the formal and informal reporting
relationships among organizational entities. Technical interfaces are those between
technical disciplines. Indirect management interfaces is a fabricated answer.
54. You are selecting a project manager for a low risk project with a short time frame. You
have a candidate who came up through a command and control management culture.
Would he be a good candidate?
a. Yes
b. No
Answer: a. This would be called an autocratic management style which can be successful
for low risk projects. The laissez-faire style of management is successful for creative, open-
ended non-urgent projects. A democratic management style relies on participation between
management and staff for decision making. The drawbacks are that this does not
necessarily result in the best choice and can be a detriment where quick decisions are
required.
You have a project team consisting of John, Jill, Ike, Jennifer, Mickey, Sara, Adrienne,
Steve, and Donald. Sara is the testing coordinator. Ike is the department manager for the
technical resources assigned but a non-active team member. Steve and Donald have been
designated as ultimately accountable for the success of the project. Jennifer is the customer
representative. John is the project sponsor but will not be actively involved..
55. From the limited information above, does this represent a good Responsibility
Assignment Matrix?
a. Yes, because the customer is represented
b. Yes, because the technical department manager is included
c. Uncertain; not enough information is given

d. No, because there can be only one person accountable for the overall success of the
project
Answer: d. The other choices are possible answers but they are overridden by having two
managers with ultimate accountability for the overall project. There can be multiple persons
with accountability for various phases as long as only one is accountable for any particular
phase or the overall effort.
56. As testing coordinator, Sara’s role in the requirements phase would be:
a. Participant
b. Reviewer
c. To provide input
d. To sign off the final requirements
Answer: a. Development of test plans should begin in the requirements phase so Sara
should be participating. Since she does not provide the requirements, she would be
processing inputs into the test plan, not providing them. It is not necessary for her to sign off
on the requirements.
57. As the customer, Jennifer’s role would most likely be:
a. Participant in requirements and sign-off on testing
b. Sign off in requirements, participant in design and development and sign off in testing
c. Sign off for requirements and testing with possible reviews in other stages
d. Sign off in every stage
Answer: c. To lock in the requirements (and the scope), the customer should formally
approve them as meeting her business needs. Rarely will the customer be knowledgeable
enough nor is it necessary for her to participate (i.e., be a ‘doer’) in or approve every stage
of the project (b. & d.). The customer’s role in a project is concerned with the ‘what’, not the
‘how’. Once the what (requirements) have been determined, other project members are
engaged to determine how it will be accomplished. Interestingly, the customer now
evaluates the deliverables against his requirements. Periodic reviews with the customer
during the other stages help assure the team is correctly translating the “what” into the
“how”.
58. Negotiation is a technique in staff acquisition because:
A. Some components may be subcontracted to a third party
B. Various functional areas have the authority over who is assigned
C. Salary and benefits are negotiated when a new hire is required for the project team
a. A
b. A & B
c. B & C
d. All of the above

Answer: d. Staff acquisition may involve negotiating with third parties, functional managers,
and selection of a new employee.
59. In the above example, the project manager is least likely to be involved with:
A. Negotiating scope and deliverables with third parties
B. Negotiating with functional managers to obtain the appropriate resources
C. Negotiating salary with a job candidate
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. A & C
Answer: c. The project manager may be involved in employee selection, but is not usually
involved with negotiating his compensation.
60. In staff acquisition, recruitment practices would be:
a. An input
b. A tool and technique
c. An output
Answer: a. Recruitment practices are an input to staff acquisition.
61. A description of the staffing pool would be an output of staff acquisition.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b. The staffing pool description is an input to staff acquisition.
62. Identifying risks are part of the risk management plan.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b. The risk management plan is an input to risk identification. The plan documents
the procedures for dealing with risks as they arise (or are identified) throughout the life of the
project.
63. Risk management planning is defined as :
a. Determining and documenting which risks which might affect the project

b. Developing the procedures and techniques to lower the threats and to improve the
opportunities for meeting project objectives
c. Deciding how to approach and plan a project’s risk management activities
d. Measuring risks’ probabilities of occurrence, their consequences and impacts to project
objectives
Answer: c. Choice ‘a.’ is risk identification; ‘b.’ is risk response planning; and, ‘d.’ is
quantitative risk analysis.
64. Company Z has a standard risk management methodology which uses a published
scoring and weighting technique for categorizing identified risks. Should this be part of
the risk management plan?
a. Yes; though it is a recognized corporate standard, it should be included in the risk
management plan
b. No; it is part of a later stage of risk management known as risk response planning
Answer: a. The risk management plan is an input to risk response planning.
65. Company Y has a history of project’s missing deadlines and having cost overruns. An
outside consultant comes in and observes the following:
1) employee turnover is running the industry average of 23%;
2) poorly executed scope control resulting in changing requirements throughout projects;
3) design errors;
4) ambiguous definitions of roles and responsibilities.
As the project manager, which should you address in the risk identification stage?
a. All should be included
b. All but employee turnover since the turnover % is no worse than the industry average
c. Scope control and design error risks
d. Scope control, design error and roles and responsibility definition risks
Answer: a. Regardless of whether employee turnover is equal to or better than industry
norms, a high % can have a negative impact on your project. Poorly executed scope control
and design errors may be resulting from poorly documented and understood requirements,
things you, as the project manager, need to be aware of as you progress through the project
stages. Clear definition of roles and responsibilities are necessary for assuring that all work
is assigned to someone for execution.
66. The following would be considered external risks to the project except:
A. An Act of God
B. A change in federal regulations
C. Lack of funding

D. Poor product quality
a. None of the above; all are examples of external risks
b. A, B & C
c. A, B & D
d. C & D
Answer: d. Competition for or lack of funding is an organizational risk and product quality is
a product risk.
67. Asking why five times to identify risks and impacts would be part of which technique:
a. Brainstorming
b. Interviewing
c. Ishikawa diagramming
d. SWOT
Answer: c. Ishikawa uses a fishbone diagramming technique of documenting the cause
(why) and effect of risks a minimum of five times up to the point where all causes and effects
are known. SWOT stands for strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats.
Interviewing is used to understand risk factors from the perspectives of stakeholders and
subject matter experts.
68. The following are true about the probability-impact matrix:
A. Helps decide which risks need a response strategy
B. Is used in preparing the avoidance plan
C. Can be used to determine which risks will be accepted without a response plan
D. Is a good tool for ranking risks as high, medium and low
a. All are true
b. A, B & C are true
c. A, B & D are true
d. A, C & D are true
Answer: a. Though an ‘avoidance plan’ is not a formally recognized PMI term, the matrix is
an input for determining which risks can and need to be avoided as part of the risk response
plan. Risk ranking assists with deciding whether the risk will be avoided, mitigated or
accepted.
69. Decision trees:
A. Associate decisions with chance events resulting from those decisions

B. Uses all probable outcomes to determine a calculated expected monetary outcome from
a single decision.
C. Considers that different conditions for a certain decision can result in different outcomes
D. Uses branches to connect decisions (circles) to uncertain outcomes (squares) and
possible outcomes.
a. All are true
b. All are true but B
c. B & C are true
d. A, B & C are true
Answer: d. In a decision tree, decisions are depicted as squares and uncertain outcomes as
circles.
70. The difference between the computing the standard mean of a triangular distribution
from computing the standard mean with PERT is:
a. There is no difference
b. PERT places a heavier weight to the most likely value
c. The inclusion of PERT will always result in a higher mean
d. The inclusion of PERT will always result in a lower mean
Answer: b. PERT weights the most likely value with a multiplier of 4. Depending on what
this value is relative to the higher and lower limits, the mean may be higher or lower than the
standard arithmetic average.
71. With both methods,
A. The project mean is the sum of the activity means
B. The project variance is the sum of the activity variances
C. The project standard deviation is the sum of all the activity variances
a. All are true
b. A & B are true
c. A & C are true
d. None are true
Answer: b. The project standard deviation is the square root of the project variance.
72. In a set of values, the value occurring most frequently would be the:
a. Absolute mean
b. Median

c. Mode
d. Weighted mean
Answer: c. Median value is the one where there are equal values higher than and lower
than that value. Mode, mean and median can be equal, depending on the distribution of the
value set. Mode is the value occurring most frequently. Weighted mean is a nonsense
answer.
73. The range of a set of values is:
A. The difference between the highest value and the lowest value
B. Is always expressed as a positive
C. Is the sum of (median value minus the high value) and (median value minus the low
value)
D. Is equal to two times the median value
a. A & B
b. A, B & C
c. A, B & D
d. B & D
Answer: b.
74. Where several schedule nodes converge into a single activity,
A. There is increased risk for project delays
B. This needs addressing as part of the quantitative risk analysis
C. This needs addressing as part of the qualitative risk analysis
D. The project manager should redo the schedule to eliminate the bottleneck
a. A, B & C
b. A, B & D
c. A & B
d. A & D
Answer: c. Assuming the project schedule already represents the true dependencies
between activities, it is highly unlikely that the schedule can be manipulated to eliminate the
convergence. However, this does bear revisiting the schedule to confirm the convergent
activity is truly dependent upon the converging ones.
75. A company has taken out an insurance policy to cover the loss of revenues that would
result from missing a key time to market date. This is known as:
a. Risk avoidance

b. Risk mitigation
c. Risk transference
d. A risk event
Answer: c. The financial impact of the revenue loss has been transferred to the
insurance carrier. Missing the date would be a risk event.
76. Contingencies are:
A. Reflected in predefined actions a project will take should a known risk event occurs
B. Are reflected as dollars in the project cost baseline
C. Can be quantified in time (schedule)
D. Are an output of the risk response plan
a. All the above
b. A, C & D
c. A, B & D
d. C & D
Answer: a.
77. ISO stands for the International Organization of Standards.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b. ISO stands for the International Organization of Standardization
78. Product quality is the responsibility of:
a. Senior management
b. The QA team
c. The project manager
d. The individual project team member
Answer: d. Senior management is responsible for quality policy; the project manager is
responsible for project quality and the QA team enforces the quality standards. For product
quality, it comes down to the individual team member to ‘’build it in’.
79. Quality planning uses all the following tools and techniques except:
A. Benchmarking
B. Checklists

C. Design of experiments
D. Standards and regulations
a. None; quality planning uses all of the above
b. C
c. B & D
d. D
Answer: c. Checklists are an output of the quality planning process and standards and
regulations are inputs. Along with benchmarking and design of experiments, cost/benefit
analysis and flowcharting are the tools and techniques used here.
80. In quality planning, the technique of identifying the impact of different project variables is
called:
a. Cost/benefit analysis
b. Benchmarking
c. Design of experiments
d. An Ishikawa diagram
Answer: c. Cost/benefit analysis is used to identify the costs and benefits of the quality
processes themselves. Benchmarking compares similar processes to identify best
practices. The Ishikawa diagram relates causes to problems.
81. The Project Management Institute definition of quality is:
A. The same as the ISO definition
B. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or
implied needs.
C. The totality of project characteristics that will satisfy defined needs.
D. Conformance to requirements
a. B
b. A & B
c. A & C
d. D
Answer: b.
82. Quality control is a structured review of specific quality management activities meant to
identify lessons learned and to improve performance on current or future projects.
a. True

b. False
Answer: b. Quality control monitors specific project results for compliance to quality
standards and quality audits are structured reviews of specific quality management activities
meant to identify lessons learned and to improve performance on current or future projects.
83. Communication planning:
A. Determines the information and communications needs of stakeholders
B. Defines who needs what when and how it will be delivered
C. Considers the information inputs and outputs of each primary stakeholder group
D. Recognizes that there are often communications barriers within organizations which
must be overcome for effective project management.
a. All of the above
b. A & B
c. A, B & C
Answer: a.
84. The project manager has recognized 5 stakeholder groups (besides himself) to be
included in the communications plan. This represents how many communications channels.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 15
d. 25
Answer: c. The number of communications channels is calculated by the formula n *(n-1)/2.
In this example that is 6 (because the PM is part of the channel)*5/2=15
85. Methods for communicating to stakeholders should consider:
A. Location
B. Available technology
C. Level of detail
D. Cultural factors
a. All of the above
b. C
c. A, B & C
d. A, B & D

Answer: d. Level of detail is a component of the information being communicated, not a
method.
86. In determining the use of communications technology, the following factors are to be
considered:
A. Timeliness required in the information disseminated
B. Accessibility and availability of technology instruments
C. Staff experience
D. Length of project
a. All of the above
b. C
c. A, B & C
d. A, B & D
Answer: a.
87. Written plans and reports would be considered:
A. A formal communication type
B. A key information type
C. Sent only to senior management
D. Should be available to all team members
a. A.
b. B.
c. A & C
d. B & D
Answer: a. Written plans and reports are formal types of communication; key information
types represent what gets communicated. Distribution of plans and reports are determined
by content and need to know as defined in the communications plan.
88. Integration management:
A. Is necessary to ensure that all the various elements of the project are coordinated
B. Considers organizational policies for project adherence
C. Utilizes earned value as a technique for management and control
a. A
b. A & B
c. A & C
d. All the above

Answer: d.
89. The structured approach used to guide the development of the project plan is called:
a. Project planning methodology
b. Project Management Information System (PMIS)
c. Earned value management
d. Project objective
Answer: a.
90. A properly prepared project plan includes:
A. All subsidiary management plans
B. A complete WBS down to the work package level
C. All plans except the facilitating plans which are included as supporting detail
D. Unresolved issues
a. All of the above
b. A, B & C
c. A & D
Answer: d. Facilitating plans are considered subsidiary management plans and would be
included. In the project plan, the WBS is only defined to the control level at which the
baseline scope is established. Unresolved (open) issues and pending decisions are included
in the project plan. As these are resolved, any resultant change is handled through the
change management process.
91. The project team has completed the project plan except for not having identified the
dates for the major milestones. The project manager wants to include this as an
unresolved issue and continue to publish the plan. Is this an acceptable management
practice?
a. Yes
b. No
Answer: b. Major milestone dates are required to establish the baseline. If these dates are
missing, that indicates that lower level planning has not been sufficiently completed as these
activities roll up to higher level milestones, meaning that the project plan is missing key
elements and detail. The iterative method of the rolling wave approach adds detail
throughout the project but still requires a base understanding of the milestones and
expected durations for achieving them.
92. Scope planning:
A. Is the process of progressively elaborating and documenting the project work that
produces the product
B. Establishes the basis for future project decisions and actions
C. Includes success criteria for project/phase completion
D. Uses the scope statement as a guide

a. All the above
b. A, B & D
c. A, B & C
d. B, C & D
Answer: c. The scope statement is an output of scope planning.
93. As an output of scope planning, the scope management plan :
A. Includes the scope statement
B. Identifies potential scope changes
C. Addresses the change management process along with approval and authority levels
D. Includes the expected stability of the project scope
a. All of the above
b. A, B & C
c. A & C
d. B, C & D
Answer d. The scope statement is also an output of scope planning. The other choices are
part of the scope management plan.
Task Duration
Depends
on
A 2
B 3 A
C 4 A
D 5 B
E 2 C, D
F 1 E
Refer to the table above for questions 92 through 97
94. In the above schedule table, the shortest duration for completing this project is:
a. 8
b. 12
c. 13
d. 17

Answer: c. The longest path (A->B->D->E->F) creates the shortest amount of time the
project can be completed.
95. B, C, & D are considered to be parallel activities.
a. True
b. False, because their durations are not the same
c. False, because D cannot begin until B completes
Answer: c. Sequences, not durations, of activities indicate whether activities are parallel or
not. In this example, both components of B and D will execute in parallel to C should they be
worked as planned but are not required to be in parallel to each other.
96. Total slack for activity C is:
a. 1
b. 4
c. 6
d. None of the above
Answer: b. B & C are parallel activities which begin after A. They both are in the path
leading to activity E. The progression of activities leading to E are A->C (duration 2+4=6)
and A->B->D (total duration 2, 3 & 5= 10). The A-> sequence can slip 4 days before
affecting the commencement of activity E.
97. The project team has found a way to reduce activities A & C by one day each. The
impact is:
A. There is no impact as the critical path sequence has not changed.
B. The non-critical path has acquired one additional day of float
C. The non-critical path has acquired two additional days of float
D. The overall duration has decreased by one day
a. A & C
b. B & D
c. B & C
d. All of the above
Answer: b. The shortened duration of C gives it and its successors (up to task E) an
additional day of float and the reduction to A shortens the critical path by one day as it is
part of the critical path.
98. Should B complete a day sooner:
A. There is now a dual critical path
B. The project will complete a day sooner
C. The non-critical path has lost a day of float
D. D can slip a day without affecting the projected completion date

a. A
b. A & B
c. B & C
d. D
Answer: c. A dual critical path will exist when the overall float of 4 days is consumed via time
savings on the critical path and/or slippages to the non-critical activities. The projected
completion date is now 12 vs. the previous 13 so a slippage in D could affect this date. 13
may have been set as the baseline duration and would be changed via change control.
99. In decomposing the scope,
A. The level of detail is confirmed as being adequate for estimating cost and duration
B. The sub elements are tied to measurable criteria
C. More work is required of the project team
D. Higher level elements remain unchanged
a. All of the above
b. A, B & D
c. A, B & C
d. A & D
Answer: c. A result of scope decomposition is to identify the higher level elements or confirm
they are correct; therefore, they could change as a result of this effort. To properly
decompose the work to lower levels does require more work of the team upfront. By having
measurable criteria for the sub elements, it may become necessary to modify higher level
elements through change control.
100. Project plan execution is the primary purpose of Integration Management. Which
is not a tool or technique in this process?
a. Preventative action
b. General management skills
c. Product knowledge
d. The PMIS
Answer: a. Preventative action is an input to this process.
101. In Maslow’s Hierarchy, social needs are which level?
a. There isn’t such a level
b. The second level up
c. The third level up
d. The fourth level up
Answer: c. In ascending order, they are physiological, safety, social, esteem and self-
actualization.

102. The formal procedure for sanctioning work at the right time utilizing the right resources in
the right sequence is called:
a. The code of accounts
b. The work authorization system
c. The chart of accounts
d. The PMIS
Answer: b. The work authorization system is part of the PMIS and the other terms refer to
ways of collecting/reporting progress after it’s begun.
103. As the project manager for building the plant for a company product, you learn offhand
that the product development team has modified the product to be produced. You :
a. Confirm it and how much the product is changing
b. Immediately institute the change management process
c. If a., then b.
d. If the change is minor, formally inform the product development team to be better
communicators in the future
Answer: c. Any change should be formally addressed and documented with all relevant
stakeholders. As a result, the performance measurement baseline may need modifying.
Otherwise, the project archives would then show that, at the time, there was no recognized
impact to the project.
104. As part of the project records that are recognized as legitimate include:
A. Call back slips
B. The project manager’s daily journal
C. Sticky notes
D. None mentioned here; all need to be formal communications to be legitimate
a. A & B
b. B only
c. A, B & C
d. D
Answer: c. Informal communications can be legitimate if consistently and persistently
maintained.
105. The process that measures project performance, identifies variances and initiates
corrective actions is called:
a. Planning
b. Executing
c. Controlling
d. Closing
Answer: c.

106. Tools and techniques used in integrated change control include all except:
a. Configuration management
b. The PMIS
c. Additional planning
d. Corrective action
Answer: d. Corrective action is an output of integrated change control. The others are tools
and techniques.
107. The regular monitoring and measurement of progress:
A. Helps ensure project objectives are satisfied
B. Allows for more timely corrective actions
C. Can be waived for non-critical tasks
D. Is by nature reactive
a. All of the above
b. A & B
c. A, B & C
d. A, B & D
Answer: b. Regular monitoring and measurement of non-critical tasks help assure they do
not become critical. This process also allows for recognition and correction of trends to
keep activities in line with objectives and is, therefore, proactive.
108.Performance reporting is a sub-level to:
a. Information distribution
b. Communication management
c. Execution
d. Integrated change control
Answer: b. Performance reporting and information management are both sub-levels to
communications management. Performance reporting as the communications process
within performance measurement is a tool and technique for integrated change control.
109. Forecasting is considered part of performance reporting.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. Status reporting, progress reporting and forecasting are included in performance
reporting. Performance reporting also includes the dissemination of this information to
stakeholders according to the communications plan.
110. When team members/stakeholders assess project status and progress, it is known as:
a. Performance reviews
b. Variance analysis
c. Trend analysis

d. Earned value analysis
Answer: a. Variance analysis is comparing actual results to expected or planned results.
Trend analysis evaluates project results over time to identify improvements or deterioration
of performance. Earned value analysis takes an integrated approach to scope, cost and
schedule for a quantitative perspective of performance.
111.Earned value:
A. Is also referred to as budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP)
B. Is the actual work completed
C. The sum of the approved estimates for the activities completed within a specified time
period
D. The physical work scheduled plus the budget to accomplish that work
a. D
b. A & B
c. C
d. A, B & C
Answer: d. Planned value (PV) or budgeted cost of work scheduled (BCWS) is the physical
work scheduled plus the budget to accomplish that work.
112. A project manager uses earned value to:
A. Compare actual performance against a baseline
B. Indicate the ongoing performance or health of the project
C. Predict final cost and schedule
D. Identify trends for proactive intervention where necessary
a. All of the above
b. A
c. A & B
d. A & C
Answer: a.
113. Planned Value (PV):
A. Is always time phased
B. Quantifies scope in terms of dollars
C. Quantifies scope in terms of time
D. Is best depicted in graphic format
a. B
b. C
c. B, C & D

d. A, B & C
Answer: d. There is no right or wrong presentation format; it is best determined by
considering the needs or preferences of the recipients of the information.
114. Using fixed formulas for calculating earned value is an acceptable method.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. Typical formulas include 0/100, 25/75, and 50/50.
115. Using weighted milestones in earned value calculation:
A. Allows higher values to be placed on more difficult or critical subtasks
B. Is not a good method compared to other methods available
C. Should have stakeholder concurrence on the weighting
D. Is best used when tasks have a direct relationship to other tasks
a. A
b. B
c. A & C
d. D
Answer: c. D is the definition of apportioned relationships which would not lend itself to
weighted milestones. When using weighted milestones, all stakeholders should agree to the
weights beforehand to eliminate possible controversy later on with reported progress.
116. Level of Effort (LOE):
A. Is good for repetitive tasks
B. May be more appropriately placed in overhead
C. Is used for tasks with no measurable output
D. Computes earned value as a percent of a base task or set of base tasks
a. A & C
b. C & D
c. B & C
d. All of the above
Answer: c. Choice A. is usually best served by using equivalent completed units (ECU). D. is
how EV is computed for apportioned relationships. Since EV is always equal to planned
value (PV) in LOE tasks, there is no inherent value to ‘reporting’ these tasks as having
performance indices of 1.
117.If a project’s monthly costs follow a normal distribution over the life of the project, the
resultant cumulative cost graph would be:
a. A flat line graph of the averages
b. A bell curve
c. An S curve

d. A straight 45 degree angle line graph
Answer: c. A normal distribution of monthly costs would be a bell curve which would equate
to an S curve of cumulative costs. If monthly costs were all equal, the graph would be a 45
degree line graph.
The following example is for the questions 117-120:
A project has actual costs of $112. Planned value to date is $130. Earned value is $102.
Total budget is $150.
118. Using CPI to compute Estimate at Completion (EAC), the EAC would be:
a. 150
b. 165
c. 174
d. 242
Answer: b. Using this method of forecasting, the formula is EAC = ACWP + (BAC-
BCWP)/CPI. 165= 112 + (150-102)/(102/112). This assumes the rest of the project will
perform no better and no worse than the project has to date. Choice c is using the SPI
method {EAC=ACWP+(BAC-BCWP)/SPI. SPI is EV/PV. Choice a ignores CPI and
assumes the budget will be met even in spite of evidence to the contrary. Choice d is the
sum of ACWP and PV which isn’t a forecasting method.
119. For the project to complete within budget, what would the remaining CPI have to be?
a. 1.10
b. 1.17
c. 1.26
d. 1.65
Answer: c. 150= 112+ (150-102)/1.26. Though not entirely impossible, this is highly
improbable as it represents a 39% performance improvement (1.26/.91) over the
remaining third of the project ([150-102]/150).
120. Using the cumulative CPI and SPI method, the EAC would be:
a. 165
b. 178
c. 180
d. 242
Answer: c. EAC= ACWP + (BAC-BCWP)/CPI*SPI.[180=(150-102)/(.91*(102/130)).
121. Ignoring ACWP and using only the SPI, the EAC would be:
a. 174
b. 178
c. 211
d. 242

Answer: c. EAC= BAC/SPI or 211= 150/.71. See 118 above for a. Choice b is invalid as it is
the sum of BAC and the schedule variance to date. Choice d is the sum of PV and ACWP
which is not a valid forecasting method.
122. A project has a CPI of 1.1 and an SPI of .91. The project manger reports he will
meet budget. Is this a reasonable forecast?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Cannot tell from the information given
Answer: a. Using the cumulative CPI and SPI method, the divisor (CPI*SPI) would be
1.1*.91, equaling 1. An EAC = BAC/1 would be equal to the BAC. Since the CPI already
factors in actual cost performance to date, this is reasonable.
123. When should a project reforecast using bottoms up estimating for remaining work?
a. When variances exceed 10%
b. When variances exceed 20%
c. Only if remaining work is equal to or greater than 50% and the variance exceeds 20%.
d. It depends
Answer: d. Depending on the project’s tolerance for risk, it could be any threshold.
However, it is good practice to define these thresholds upfront in the various management
plans.
124. Which of the following is not included in the performance measurement baseline (PMB)?
a. The WBS
b. The detailed budget
c. The schedule baseline
d. The procurement baseline
Answer: d. The other choices and the quality baseline are all part of the PMB.
125. Configuration management:
A. Tracks detailed information about system features and characteristics
B. Is only relevant to information technology projects
C. Is key to acceptance testing
D. Reports changes to item features and characteristics
a. All of the above
b. A & D
c. A, B & D
d. A, C & D
Answer: d. Configuration management is typically used in IT efforts but not exclusively. It
can be used for administrative controls such as procedures or for any deliverable. Since it
documents the detailed information (both physical and functional) about a deliverable,

configuration management allows the testing team to track each requirement through
acceptance testing. Configuration management also includes the reporting of changes to
the product/deliverable when recognized.
126. Configuration management includes an audit function to assure compliance.
a. True
b. False. The audit function is part of quality management.
Answer: a. Configuration management covers the documentation of system characteristics,
the auditing of them and the reporting of changes. In quality management, quality planning
identifies the quality standards relevant to the project and how to satisfy them; quality
assurance evaluates overall project performance and quality control monitors specific
project results.
127. The formal acceptance of the project scope by the stakeholders is called:
a. Scope acceptance
b. Scope initiation
c. Scope verification
d. Scope approval
Answer: c.
128. Product reviews:
A. Are used to determine conformance to requirements
B. Are also known as walk-throughs and inspection
C. Is an input to scope verification
D. Requires formal acceptance
Which of the following is the correct answer:
a. A & B
b. A & C
c. A, B & C
d. A, B & D
Answer: d. Product reviews, also known as inspection, audit and walk-throughs, is a tool
and technique of scope verification. There may or not be formal acceptance at these stages.
129. The synchronization and coordination of product changes with scope changes:
A. Becomes integrated with change control to assure baselines are maintained
appropriately
B. May require changes to contracts
C. Keeps project deliverables in line with product specifications
D. Is done at the beginning and end of the project
a. A & C

b. A & D
c. A, B & C
d. A, B & D
Answer: c.
130. Corrective action is a tool and technique of scope change control.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b. Corrective action is an output of scope change control.
131. Lessons learned is the formal evaluation of project successes and failures
conducted during project closure.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b. Lessons learned can and should be conducted throughout the project lifecycle.
An output of change control, it documents the causes of variances and the history of actions
leading to those successes and failures. NOTE: Evaluation of successes is also part of
lessons learned to, hopefully, perpetuate their practice.
132. Changes to baselines:
A. Are known as the revised baseline
B. Are known as the adjusted baseline
C. Are done to assure accurate performance measurement
D. Are actions to change project plan execution
a. A & C
b. B & C
c. A, C & D
d. B, C & D
Answer: b. Choice D is the definition of corrective action.
133. Continuous planning and revisions to existing plans:
A. Is a tool for change control
B. Integrates performance reporting with scope management
C. Is used when variances exceed their thresholds
D. Evaluates the WBS against current understanding of deliverables
a. All of the above
b. A, B & C
c. A, C & D
d. A, B & D

Answer: d. Additional planning should be proactive and looking ahead, not just reacting to
what has already occurred.
134. The cost account matrix:
A. Is also known as the control account matrix
B. Relates the project organization to the WBS
C. Indicates where expenses and time should be charged
D. Ties responsibility to scope
a. A & C
b. B & C
c. B & D
d. A, B & D
Answer: d. The chart of accounts (C.) is used for reporting time and expenses.
135. Schedule change control:
A. Is concerned with controlling slippage
B. Determines a schedule change has occurred
C. Needs clearly defined requirements to be effective
D. Is an input to lessons learned
a. All of the above
b. B & C
c. A, B & D
d. B, C & D
Answer: a.
136. In schedule change control, change requests :
a. Are an input
b. Are an output
Answer: a. Change requests are inputs and approved modifications are outputs.
137. The project manager reports to the executive sponsor that the project SPI is .78 and the
SV is + 110, concluding the project is on track. The executive sponsor should:
a. Agree with this assessment as he uses these indicators as snapshots of project health
b. Should compare these to the agreed upon thresholds to determine if more information is
necessary.
c. Should ask for a detailed performance audit
Answer: c. A schedule performance index (SPI) [EV/PV] less than 1.0 indicates the project is
behind schedule and a schedule variance (SV) [EV-PV] above 0 indicates being ahead of

schedule. Since they are products of the same data, the above status report is an
impossibility.
138. Fast tracking :
A. Is also known as ‘crashing’
B. Performs activities in parallel that would normally be done in sequence
C. Uses overtime and expanded work weeks to get ahead of schedule
D. Requires closer coordination between activities to prevent downtime
a. All of the above
b. B & D
c. B, C & D
d. A & D
Answer: b. “Crashing’ is a form of schedule compression that usually requires additional
resources being applied, thereby increasing costs. Fast tracking does not necessarily mean
overtime and expanded work schedules but, since these activities are usually performed
sequentially (B), closer coordination is required to eliminate waiting or downtime in one
activity while another completes.
139. Cost control:
A. Monitors cost performance to identify variances from plan
B. Includes the accurate recording of changes to the baseline
C. Assures unauthorized changes do not become part of the cost baseline
D. Includes communicating authorized changes to stakeholders
a. A & B
b. A, B & D
c. A, B & C
d. All of the above
Answer: d.
140. Earned value management:
A. Is used to update budgets and revise cost estimates
B. Can result in a change request
C. Is a tool and technique in the cost control process
D. Is used in evaluating EAC
a. A, B & C
b. A, C & D
c. A & C
d. All of the above

Answer: b. Change requests are inputs to earned value management.
141. A project manager has his team re-baseline with each month’s performance report.
a. This is good management practice as it keeps the team in the here and now of what’s
going on
b. This indicates either poor scope management or needless effort
c. Is only good or bad based upon the requirements in the scope management plan
d. As a re-baseline, there should also be an attendant approved change request
Answer: b. Re-baselining occurs upon an approved change which could make d. a possible
answer. However, if there is a requirement to re-baseline monthly based upon recognized
changes to scope, this would indicate poor scope management. If there are no changes to
scope, this constitutes wasted effort on the part of the team and also minimizes the value of
variance analysis since the cumulative variances are erased with each re-baseline.
142. Rework:
A. Occurs because of defective workmanship
B. Is an action to bring defective items into compliance with requirements
C. Indicates poor supervision and management
D. Is the corrective action resulting from quality control measurement
a. All of the above
b. B
c. A & B
d. A, B & C
Answer: b. Rework can become necessary due to defective materials of which the workers
and their supervision may not be aware at the time. D. is the definition of process
adjustment.
143. The executive sponsor has asked that the project manager present quality issues
to him in a Pareto diagram. To do this, the project manager will need to:
A. Identify these issues by cause and by the number of occurrences
B. Identify the significant causes for display
C. Order them by frequency of occurrence
D. Have access to a CAD program to produce the diagrams
a. A, B & C
b. A & C
c. B, C & D
d. All of the above
Answer: a. Manual charting or the charting function of a spreadsheet program are
sufficient. A CAD program would not lend itself to this activity.

144. The QA analyst tells the project manager that a certain range of values
represents 75% of the range for all the possible outcomes. This means:
a. They all fall within 1 standard deviation from the mean
b. They all fall within 2 standard deviations from the mean
c. They do not account for the top 25 % of possible outcomes
d. From the information given, one cannot tell what it means
Answer: b. One standard deviation from the mean is 68.27% within the range and 2
standard deviations are 95% within the range, putting 75% between the two. Standard
deviation ranges are from the mean, not the lowest or highest possible value or outcome.
145. Six Sigma as defined by Motorola is:
a. 6 defects per billion
b. 2 defects per million
c. 4.5 defects per billion
d. 3.4 defects per million
Answer: d. 3.4 defects per million is the Motorola definition and is generally accepted as the
standard within quality organizations. True six sigma is 2 defects per billion.
146. The Pareto principle:
a. States that if seven or more observations in a row occur on the same side of the mean,
they should be investigated for a probable cause.
b. States that there are variations inherent to a process
c. States that 80% of the benefit comes from 20% of the work and that focus should be on
the top defect causes.
d. Specifies a range of acceptable variation.
Answer: c. Answer a. is the rule of seven; b. defines random causes and d. is the definition
of tolerance.
147. Failure mode effects and criticality analysis is used to:
A. Assign risk priorities
B. Analyze design reliability in new products
C. Defines potential failure points in each component of a product.
D. Defines the criticality of a failure point and the probability of detection
a. All of the above
b. A, C & D
c. A & D
d. B,C & D
Answer: a.
148.The following are all tools and techniques in risk monitoring and control except:
a. Risk response plan

b. Risk response audits
c. Earned value analysis
d. Technical performance measurement
Answer: a. The risk response plan is an input.
149. A workaround plan:
a. Is a response to planned or unplanned risks
b. Is an unplanned response to risk
c. Is a change that occurs due to risk events or responses
d. Is used when the workspace is congested and allowances have to be made for work
teams to get their jobs done.
Answer: b. Answer a. is corrective action; c. is a project change request and d. is nonsense.
150. Performance reporting is part of:
a. Execution
b. Communications management
c. Status reporting
d. Work results
Answer: b. Status reporting is a subset of performance reporting and work results are inputs
to performance reporting.
151. Earned value uses all of the below except:
a. Budgeted cost of work scheduled
b. Trend analysis
c. Actual cost of work performed
d. Budgeted cost of work performed
Answer: d.
152. The integrated baseline review establishes schedule mileposts, and, at the completion of
each one, compares the work completed against the cumulative actual costs to the
budgeted cost of work scheduled.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a.
153. Inputs to scope verification include all the following except:
a. Work results
b. Product documentation
c. The WBS
d. Inspection
Answer: d. Inspection is a tool and technique. The other choices plus the scope statement
and the project plan constitute inputs. Formal acceptance is an output.

154. Schedule change control can occur without their being an impact to scope or cost.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. True
155. The purpose of cost change control is:
A. To monitor cost performance to detect variances from the approved plan
B. To ensure all changes are captured accurately in the cost baseline
C. To prevent unauthorized changes from being included in the cost baseline
D. To assure all appropriate stakeholders are informed of authorized changes
a. All of the above
b. B
c. A, B & C
d. B & C
Answer: a.
156.As the project’s quality control inspector, you would:
A. Measure levels of performance against predetermined standards
B. Be involved in measuring, examining and testing
C. Be very active in seeking ways to improve performance
D. Develop a plan for the various points in the project where you would perform reviews,
audits and walkthroughs
a. All of the above
b. B
c. A, B & C
d. A, B & D
Answer: d. The QC inspector measures against predetermined standards. He does not
work to change standards as a project progresses. If a necessary change is identified, it is
up to the product team to define the new standards.
157. The mathematical formulas which relate values within a population to their probability of
occurrence is known as:
a. A probability distribution
b. A normal distribution
c. Statistical sampling
d. A control chart
Answer: a.

158. A control chart is used to plot variable data against upper and lower control limits.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a.
159. The value of statistical sampling is:
a. It allows one to cover all possible outcomes
b. It does not require 100% inspection
c. It makes for easier diagramming
d. It identifies special causes vs. random causes
Answer: b.
160. In project close-out, the largest source of conflict is:
a. Schedule
b. Technical issues
c. Resources
d. Cost
Answer: a. All can be issues with resources being re-assigned, etc.
161. Ending a contract without successful performance or breach is called mutual agreement.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b. This is the definition of early termination. Mutual agreement is when both
parties release each other from any obligation without full successful performance.
Other key definitions are: breach of contract where the contract is terminated because of
one party’s failure to perform; liquidated damages are an agreed upon amount that a
seller would pay a buyer should the seller not meet performance requirements; payment
bonds are insurance that a seller will pay for all materials, labor and subcontractors used
in the performance of its work; and performance bonds are those a seller purchases to
assure he performs to the terms and conditions of his contract.
162. Administrative closure:
A. Verifies and documents project results
B. Formalizes product acceptance by designated stakeholders
C. Is a subset of communications management
D. Has as its output project documentation, lessons learned, and project archives

a. All of the above
b. A & B
c. A, B & C
d. A, C & D
Answer: c. Lessons learned and project archives are outputs of administrative closure
and project documentation is an input.

PMP assessment exam 1.1

Recommandé

Recommandé

Contenu connexe

Tendances

Tendances (18)

En vedette

En vedette (11)

Similaire à PMP assessment exam 1.1

Similaire à PMP assessment exam 1.1 (20)

PMP assessment exam 1.1