HSB Multiplechoice Questions (CSEC 2016)

1. Chapter 1: The structure and function of cells
1. Which of the following is NOT a function of living things?
a) Reproduction b) Excretion c) Breathing d) Growth
2. A student uses a light microscope with an eyepiece lens with a magnification of x10
and an objective lens with x40 magnification. What is the total magnification of the
specimen?
a) x50 b) x400 c) x4000 d) x4
3. Which of the following instructions for using a light microscope is NOT correct?
a) Clip a prepared slide into place using stage clips
b) Adjust the iris diaphragm so the light is bright but does not dazzle
c) To start, set up your microscope with highest power lens in place
d) Use the coarse focusing knobs to focus the lowest power lens
4. The organelle which controls all of the activities of the cell and contains the genetic
material is a:
a) Ribosome b) Nucleus c) Mitochondrion d) Cytoplasm
5. Which of these structures would be found only in plant cells?
a) Cell membrane b) Ribosomes c) Mitochondria d) Chloroplasts
6. Which of the following type of cell is the smallest?
a) Yeast b) Bacteria c) Egg d) Virus
7. Which of the following would you expect to see in a bacterial cell but NOT in a plant
cell?
a) Cell wall b) Genetic material free in the cytoplasm
c) Cytoplasm d) Nucleus containing genetic material
8. Which of the following is NOT an example of a differentiated 'specialised' cell?
a) Stem cell b) Red blood cell c) Egg cell d) Neurones
9. Which of the following is an organ, NOT a tissue or a type of cell?
a) Red blood cells b) Liver c) Muscle d) Epithelium
10. Sperm are specialised reproductive cells. Label x points to:
a) the acrosome containing enzymes to penetrate the egg membrane
b) nucleus
c) mitochondria which release energy for movement
d) the tail for propulsion

2. Chapter 2: Movement of substances
1. Diffusion is:
a) The movement of particles of a gas
b) The net movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration
c) The net movement of particles from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration
d) The movement of particles through a partially permeable membrane
2. Which of the following processes in a living organism do NOT involve diffusion?
a) The movement of oxygen from the air in the lungs into the blood
b) The absorption of food in the gut
c) The movement of carbon dioxide from the air to the inside of a leaf
d) The movement of water into a cell
3. In an experiment, a piece of potato is kept in a solution of unknown concentration.
After one hour the potato cells have swollen and gained water. Which of the following is
the correct explanation about the solution and the potato cells?
a) The solution is less concentrated than the cell contents
b) The cell is less concentrated that the solution
c) The cell is the same concentration as the solution
d) The solution is more concentrated than the cell contents
4. The membrane involved in osmosis is known as:
a) Permeable b) Partially permeable
c) Fully permeable d) Freely permeable
5. If the solution surrounding the red blood cells of the body is more concentrated than
the cell contents, the cells will become:
a) Swollen b) Unchanged c) Shrivelled and shrunken d) Thickened
6. Water moves from the soil across a root by:
a) Active transport b) Transpiration c) Diffusion d) Osmosis
7. Active transport is important in plant roots for:
a) moving mineral ions against a concentration gradient into the roots
b) moving mineral ions down a concentration gradient into the roots
c) moving water against a concentration gradient into the roots
d) moving water down a concentration gradient into the roots
8. Active transport:
a) Moves substances down a concentration gradient
b) Moves substances against a concentration gradient
c) keeps concentrations even on both sides of a membrane
d) moves substances through a partially permeable membrane
9. Flamingos, crocodiles and turtles all have salt glands which:
a) Actively remove urea from the blood
b) Passively remove excess salt from the blood
c) Use energy to remove excess salt from the blood
d) Passively remove urea from the blood
10. What is the result of the experiment shown in this figure?
a) Water moves out of the partially permeable Visking tubing
bag by osmosis
b) Water moves into the partially permeable Visking tubing
bag by osmosis
c) Water moves into the freely permeable Visking tubing bag
by diffusion
d) Water moves into the partially permeable Visking tubing bag by
diffusion

3. Chapter 3: Photosynthesis and plant nutrition
1. The main photosynthetic tissue of the plant is known as:
a) The spongy mesophyll b) The palisade mesophyll
c) The cuticle d) The epidermis
2. This is the equation for photosynthesis:
6CO2 6H2O X C6H12O6 6O2
+ → +
carbon dioxide water
light
energy
glucose oxygen
What is X?
a) Mitochondria b) Chloroplast c) Chlorophyll d) Haemoglobin
3. The iodine test is used to show that photosynthesis has taken place. It tests for the
presence of:
a) Glucose b) Starch c) Protein d) Chlorophyll
4. The chloroplasts contain chlorophyll, the pigment which captures the energy from
sunlight. What colour is chlorophyll?
a) Red b) Blue c) Yellow d) Green
5. When you are testing a leaf for the presence of starch, you carry out several steps.
These include:
i) boil the leaf in ethanol in a water bath ii) boil the leaf in water briefly
iii) spread the leaf on a tile and add iodine iv) dip the leaf in hot water
Which is the correct order?
a) i, ii, iii, iv b) ii, i, iv, iii c) ii, i, iii, iv d) iii, i, ii, iv
6. Potassium hydroxide solution is used to remove which chemical from the environment
of a plant?
a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen c) Water d) Nitrogen
7. The gas given off by pondweed in bright light is collected. This gas:
a) puts out a lighted splint b) turns red litmus paper blue
c) relights a glowing splint d) turns blue litmus paper red
8. The best type of leaf to use to show that chlorophyll is needed for photosynthesis is a:
a) sugar cane leaf b) hairy leaf
c) variegated leaf d) leaf with a particularly big surface area
9. All of the statements below are correct. Which gives the best description of what is shown in this
experiment?
a) Carbon dioxide is a limiting factor for photosynthesis
b) Carbon dioxide levels, light levels and temperature all act as
limiting factors for photosynthesis
c) Light levels act as a limiting factor for photosynthesis
d) Carbon dioxide levels, light levels and temperature all act as
limiting factors for photosynthesis. They interact so the factor
which limits the process changes depending on the levels of all
three.
10. Plants need minerals to enable them to make other compounds such as proteins from
the carbohydrates made during photosynthesis. Which of the following minerals which

4. are required by plants for healthy growth is particularly important for a plant to make
proteins?
a) Potassium b) Nitrate c) Phosphate d) Magnesium
Chapter 4: Feeding relationships and natural cycles
1. What is an omnivore?
a) An organism that can make food by photosynthesis
b) An organism that can make food by chemosynthesis
c) An organism that relies on eating other organisms including animals and plants for
food
d) An organism that only eats plants
2. The components of every food chain are:
a) Producers and decomposers b) Producers, consumers and decomposers
c) Heterotrophs and decomposers d) Producers and consumers
3. One of these food chains has the organisms in the wrong order. Which is it?
a) Corn → chicken → human
b) Parrot fish → algae → grouper → barracuda
c) Leaves and flowers → colobus monkeys
d) Grass → zebra → lion
4. What is meant by a secondary consumer?
a) A plant
b) An animal that eats plants
c) An animal that eats animals that eat plants
d) An organism that breaks down and decomposes other organisms
5. What is a food web?
a) Something spun by a spider to catch prey
b) Several food chains written in a list
c) The interactions between organisms on the savannah
d) A network of food chains showing the interactions between them
6. What is the difference between a pyramid of biomass and a pyramid of energy?
a) A pyramid of biomass is more accurate than a pyramid of energy
b) A pyramid of biomass shows the amount of biological material at different stages
of a food chain. A pyramid of energy shows the amount of energy that is passed
from one organism to another in a food chain
c) There is no difference – they show the same thing
d) Pyramids of biomass are smaller than pyramids of energy
7. In which conditions do decomposers work fastest?
a) Dry, warm, plenty of oxygen b) Moist, warm, not much oxygen
c) Moist, warm, plenty of oxygen d) Moist, cold, plenty of oxygen
8. The natural cycle involving legumes, ammonium compounds and putrefying bacteria is
known as:
a) The carbon cycle b) The nitrogen cycle
c) The menstrual cycle d) The water cycle
9. Denitrifying bacteria:
a) use nitrates as an energy source and break them down into nitrogen gas
b) fix nitrogen from the air and form nitrates in the soil
c) break down proteins in decomposing organisms to form ammonium compounds
d) oxidise ammonium compounds to form nitrates in the soil
10. Which of the following is NOT a way in which carbon dioxide is released into the

5. atmosphere in the carbon cycle?
a) Respiration in animals b) Respiration in plants
c) Photosynthesis d) Decomposition
Chapter 5: Nutrition
1. Which one of the following types of food contains the most energy per gram?
a) Carbohydrates b) Proteins c) Fibre d) Lipids
2. Which of the following is a monosaccharide sugar?
a) Sucrose b) Glucose c) Lactose d) Maltose
3. A student carried out food tests on a sample of food. Iodine solution turned blue-black
and Benedict's solution turned orange-red. The food contained:
a) Starch and protein b) Starch and simple reducing sugar
c) Simple reducing sugar and protein d) Lipid and starch
4. Which of the following is a polysaccharide found only in plants?
a) Starch b) Glycogen c) Cellulose d) Galactose
5. Proteins are made up of long chains of:
a) Amino acids b) Acids c) Monosaccharides d) Fatty acids
6. Which of the following statements about lipids is NOT true?
a) Lipids are made up of fatty acids and glycerol
b) Solid lipids are known as fats and liquid lipids are known as oils
c) The food test for lipids involves Biuret reagent
d) Cholesterol is an example of a lipid
7. Calcium is a mineral which is needed in a balanced diet. It is needed:
a) to make the haemoglobin which carries oxygen in the red blood cells
b) to prevent beri-beri
c) to produce strong, hard bones and teeth
d) to enable your nervous system to work properly
8. This vitamin is needed as part of a balanced diet to stick together the cells' lining
surfaces such as the mouth and prevent scurvy. Which is it?
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B1 c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D
9. If you are obese you have a BMI of:
a) Under 18 b) Over 25 c) Under 30 d) Over 30
10. Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of diseases of the gut?
a) Too little fibre in the diet b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) Salmonella d) Listeria
Chapter 6: The human digestive system

6. 1. Which of the following is NOT true of digestive enzymes?
a) They are extracellular b) They are proteins
c) They are intracellular d) They break down food
2. The enzyme amylase breaks down:
a) Protein b) Starch c) Fats d) Sugars
3. An enzyme-catalysed reaction in digestion goes through several steps:
i) the reactant fits into the active site of the enzyme
ii) the reactant splits into products which leave the active site
iii) the enzyme and reactant come together
iv) the enzyme is ready to use again
What is the correct order for these stages?
a) i, ii, iii, iv b) iv, iii, ii, i c) ii, iii, iv, i d) iii, i, ii, iv
4. It is important to take care of your teeth. Which of the following is NOT a way of
avoiding tooth decay?
a) Brushing your teeth regularly b) Eating sweet food before bed
c) Having regular check-ups with a dentist d) Avoiding sweet, sugary foods
Use this diagram of the human digestive system to help you answer questions 5 and 6
5. Which part of the digestive system produces enzymes and acid?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
6. The duodenum and the ileum make up the small intestine. They are labelled:
a) A and B b) B and C c) C and D d) B and D
7. Bile is a green-yellow liquid made in the liver and stored in the gall bladder. It:
a) lowers the pH in the stomach
b) breaks down proteins
c) emulsifies fats and neutralises acid from the stomach
d) dilutes the digestive juices
8. The process of digestion involves:
a) Ingestion , digestion, egestion, absorption, assimilation
b) Digestion, ingestion, absorption, assimilation, egestion
c) Egestion, digestion, assimilation, absorption, ingestion
d) Ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation, egestion
9. Digested food is absorbed into the blood through the villi of the small intestine by
diffusion. Which of the following is NOT an adaptation of the villi to make absorption of
digested food more efficient?
a) They provide a large surface area
b) They are covered in cilia to move the digested food in the right direction
c) They have a rich blood supply to maintain a steep concentration gradient
d) They have short diffusion distances between the gut contents and the blood

7. 10. When the faeces become hard, dry and compacted in the gut this is known as:
a) Constipation b) Diarrhoea c) Flatulence d) Cramp
Chapter 7: The respiratory system
1. The movement of air into and out of the body is the result of the contraction and
relaxation of the:
a) Alveoli b) Intercostal muscles and diaphragm
c) Diaphragm alone d) Trachea
2. The cilia which line the trachea:
a) Move the air in and out of the lungs
b) Make mucus
c) Move mucus along with trapped microorganisms and dirt away from the lungs
towards the mouth
d) Remove dead cells from the lining of the trachea
3. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in mouth-to-mouth
resuscitation?
1) Raise the chin and tilt head back to clear the airway
2) Give 4 quick breaths into the casualty and repeat every 5 seconds until the
casualty breathes for themselves or help comes
3) Pinch the nose and seal your mouth around the casualty
4) Call for help
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 3, 4, 1 c) 4, 3, 2, 1 d) 4, 1, 3, 2
4. The alveoli have many of the features of a gas exchange surface. Which of the
following is NOT a typical feature of an exchange surface?
a) Large surface area b) Good blood supply
c) Short diffusion distances d) A protective rib cage
5. Where does aerobic respiration take place in the cell?
a) Nucleus b) Ribosomes c) Cytoplasm d) Mitochondria
6. What is the chemical produced during aerobic respiration which is used as an energy
source in the cell?
a) ADP b) ATP c) AMP d) Carbon dioxide
7. The products of anaerobic respiration in yeast are:
a) lactic acid b) carbon dioxide and water
c) ethanol d) ethanol and carbon dioxide
8. Which of these statements is NOT one of the effects of regular exercise on your body?
a) Your heart gets larger with a bigger and more efficient blood supply
b) Your lungs get larger with a bigger and more efficient blood supply
c) Your stomach gets larger with a bigger and more efficient blood supply
d) Your muscles get larger with a bigger and more efficient blood supply
9. Look at the following list: exercise, drugs, anxiety, studying, altitude, smoking,
environmental factors, cholesterol levels, weight. How many of these factors are known
to affect the breathing rate?
a) 5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 6
10. Smoking causes many diseases including lung cancer and heart disease. Which of the
following is the addictive drug which makes it very hard to give up smoking once you
have started?
a) Tar b) Carbon monoxide c) Nicotine d) Tobacco

8. Chapter 8: The circulatory system
1. Food and oxygen are transported into single celled organisms by:
a) Diffusion b) Osmosis c) Circulatory system d) Active transport
2. A vessel with a thick wall containing fibres and elastic tissue with a small lumen and
no valves. Which type of blood vessel does this describe?
a) Vein b) Artery c) Capillary d) Venule
3. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a) The veins carry oxygenated blood back to the heart
b) Veins carry blood away from the heart and arteries carry blood back to the heart
c) Veins carry blood back to the heart and arteries carry blood away from the heart
d) Arteries carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart
4. Which chamber of the heart pumps blood to the lungs?
a) Right atrium b) Right ventricle c) Left atrium d) Left ventricle
5. Oxygenated blood leaves the heart and is carried around the body in the:
a) vena cava b) hepatic portal vein c) renal artery d) aorta
6 What is the function of the valves in the veins of the body and the heart?
a) To filter out impurities b) To pump blood around the body
c) To prevent the backflow of blood d) To make a pulse
7. What is the average resting heart rate of an adult human being?
a) 50 beats per minute b) 60 beats per minute
c) 70 beats per minute d) 80 beats per minute
8. The blood is made up of several different things. Which one helps the clotting of the
blood?
a) Red blood cells b) White blood cells c) Platelets d) Plasma
9. When the red pigment found in red blood cells is combined with oxygen it is known
as:
a) Haemoglobin b) Oxyhaemoglobin c) Myoglobin d) Oxymyoglobin
10. A heart attack occurs when which of the following blood vessels is blocked by plaque
or a blood clot formed as a result of plaque?
a) Aorta b) Renal artery c) Vena cava d) Coronary artery
Chapter 9: The skeletal system
1. Arthropods such as insects have a:
a) Hydrostatic skeleton b) Exoskeleton
c) Internal skeleton d) Bony skeleton
2. Which of the following is NOT a function of the human skeleton?
a) Protection of delicate organs b) Support against gravity
c) Movement d) Excretion of mineral ions

9. Use this figure of the skeleton to help you answer questions 3, 4 and 5
3. Which bone is your humerus?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
4. Which bone is your tibia?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
5. Which set of bones are the tarsals, metatarsals and phalanges?
a) E, F, G b) D, E, F c) G, H, I d) F, G, H
6. Which of the following is needed in the diet to make your bones hard?
a) Iron b) Calcium c) Potassium d) Magnesium
7. Which strong, flexible tissue covers the ends of the bones?
a) Tendons b) Ligaments c) Cartilage d) Muscle
8. Which of the following joints does NOT allow movement?
a) Ball-and-socket b) Hinge c) Fused joint d) Shoulder joint
9. Badly fitting footwear can cause problems in your feet, in the way you walk and
also in the knees and hips. How many bones are there in your feet?
a) 206 b) 30 c) 100 d) 26
10. The muscle which raises the lower arm is:
a) Biceps b) Triceps c) Quadriceps d) Gluteus

10. Chapter 10: Coordination and control
Use this diagram to answer questions 1 and 2
1. What is shown in this figure?
a) A sperm cell b) A motor neurone
c) An afferent (sensory) neuron d) A CNS neuron
2. What is labelled X?
a) Dendrite b) Synapse c) Axon d) Cell body
3. The area of the brain which is involved in thinking, intelligence and emotion is the:
a) cerebellum b) pituitary gland c) medulla d) cerebrum
4. Reflex actions involve which sequence of events?
a) Stimulus → sensory neuron → co-ordinator → motor neuron → effector response
b) Stimulus → receptor → sensory neuron → co-ordinator → motor neuron → effector
response
c) Stimulus → effector → sensory neuron → co-ordinator → motor neuron → receptor
d) Stimulus → motor neuron → coordinator → sensory neuron → effector response
5. The cochlea of the ear is sensitive to:
a) Movement b) Sound c) Light d) Chemicals
6. Which of the following describes the cornea of the eye?
a) The tough opaque tissue that protects the outer layer of the eye
b) The middle layer of the eyeball filled with blood vessels
c) Transparent structure over the front of the eye that allows light to enter
d) The membrane that controls the amount of light which comes into the eye
7. Light entering the eye is focused on the:
a) cornea b) iris c) retina d) lens
8. Short-sightedness is when:
a) light from both close and distant objects is perfectly focused on the retina
b) light from close objects is focused on the retina but light from distant objects is
focused in front of the retina so they cannot be seen clearly
c) light from close objects is focused behind the retina so they cannot be seen clearly
but light from distant objects is focused on the retina
d) light from both close and distant objects is not focused on the retina so they cannot
be seen clearly
9. Which hormone controls the metabolic rate?
a) Adrenalin b) Thyroxine c) Insulin d) Testosterone
10. Which of the following statements best describes the control of blood sugar levels in
your blood?
a) Insulin lowers the blood glucose level and glucagon raises it
b) Insulin raises the blood glucose level and glucagon lowers it
c) Insulin lowers the blood glucose level and glycogen raises it
d) Insulin raises the blood glucose level and glycogen lowers it

11. Chapter 11: Excretion and homeostasis
1. Homeostasis means:
a) maintaining a constant internal environment regardless of the external conditions
b) letting the internal body conditions vary depending on the external conditions
c) controlling the body temperature internally so it is independent of the environmental
temperature
d) letting the body temperature vary along with the external conditions
2. Which of the following are temperature control mechanisms used by endotherms but
NOT by exotherms?
1) sweating 2) vasodilation 3) piloerection 4) basking
a) 1, 2, 4 b) 1, 2, 3 c) 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 3, 4
3. The thermoregulatory centre is found in which area of the brain?
a) Cerebrum b) Medulla c) Cerebellum d) Hypothalamus
4. Which of the following is NOT a method of cooling down as the body temperature
increases?
a) Hair pulled erect to trap layer of air
b) Increased rate of sweat production
c) Vasodilation to bring blood nearer to the surface
d) Evaporation of sweat from skin surface
5. Hypothermia is:
a) When the core body temperature goes too high
b) The correct temperature of the body
c) When the core body temperature falls below 35o
C
d) The process of maintaining a steady state in the body
6. Which of the following is the main organ involved in the excretion of urea from your
body?
a) Skin b) Lungs c) Kidney d) Heart
7. Which part of the kidney tubule is the site of the ultrafiltration of the blood?
a) First coiled tubule b) Bowman's capsule
c) Loop of Henlé d) Second coiled tubule
8. If the water content of the blood falls:
a) the pituitary gland releases more ADH into the blood so more water is released back
into the blood from the second convoluted tubule
b) the pituitary gland releases less ADH into the blood so less water is reabsorbed back
into the blood from the second convoluted tubule
c) the pituitary gland releases more ADH into the blood so less water is reabsorbed
back into the blood from the second convoluted tubule
d) the pituitary gland releases less ADH into the blood so more water is reabsorbed
back into the blood from the second convoluted tubule
9. Which of the following statements best describes the control of blood sugar levels in
your blood?
a) Insulin lowers the blood glucose level and glycogen raises it
b) Insulin raises the blood glucose level and glucagon lowers it
c) Insulin lowers the blood glucose level and glucagon raises it
d) Insulin raises the blood glucose level and glycogen lowers it

12. 10. The condition when the pancreas stops making insulin is known as:
a) Heart disease b) Diabetes c) Pancreatitis d) Pneumonia
Chapter 12: The reproductive system
1. Which of the following is NOT a feature of asexual reproduction?
a) It involves only one parent organism
b) There is no variety in the offspring – they are identical to their parent
c) It involves the joining of gametes
d) It is certain as there is no problem finding a mate
2. The male secondary sexual characteristics such as a deep voice and beard growth
develop as a result of:
a) testosterone made in the ovarie b) oestrogen made in the ovaries
c) adrenalin made in the adrenal glands d) testosterone made in the testes
3. Which of the following is the tube running through the penis which carries semen into
the body of the female?
a) Ureter b) Epididymis c) Sperm duct d) Urethra
4. Which part of the female reproductive system releases eggs and also produces the
hormone oestrogen?
a) Uterus b) Ovary c) Vagina d) Cervix
2. Use this diagram of the menstrual cycle to help you answer
questions 5 and 6
5. The female hormone labelled X on the diagram controls the buildup of the lining of the
uterus and the development of feminine traits. It is:
a) Oestrogen b) Progesterone c) FSH d) LH
6. Which important event in the menstrual cycle takes place at time Y?
a) An increase in the production of progesterone
b) The thickening of the lining of the uterus
c) Ovulation: the release of a mature ovum from the ovary
d) Menstruation: the shedding of the lining of the uterus
7. How long is the average human pregnancy?
a) 30 weeks b) 40 weeks c) 45 weeks d) 50 weeks
8. During pregnancy the developing foetus gets food and oxygen from the mother and
gets rid of its own waste products through the:
a) uterus b) amniotic fluid c) placenta d) lungs

13. 9. Which of the following methods of contraception gives the best protection against an
unwanted pregnancy AND infection by sexually transmitted diseases such as
HIV/AIDS?
a) The contraceptive pill b) Condoms
c) Sterilisation d) Natural methods based on the female cycle
10. Which of these problems of the reproductive system affects men only?
a) Infertility b) Cervical cancer c) Prostate cancer d) Ovarian cancer
Chapter 13: Cellular reproduction and variation
1. Homologous chromosomes are:
a) chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes
b) sex chromosomes
c) pairs of chromosomes with the same gene sequences, one from each parent
d) chromosomes which are not found in pairs
2. If a karyotype shows 23 pairs of chromosomes, with 22 pairs of autosomes and one
pair containing an X and a Y chromosome, what does the karyotype come from?
a) A human female b) A male dog
c) A female whistling frog d) A human male
3. The four bases in DNA are:
a) adrenalin, thymine, guanine and uracil b) adenine, thymine, guanine and cytosine
c) adrenalin, thyroxine, guanine and cytosine d) adenine, guanine, cytosine and uracil
4. Protein synthesis includes many steps including:
1) mRNA molecule leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome in the cytoplasm
2) The chain of amino acids gets longer until a protein is released into the cytoplasm
3) A section of DNA unzips and an mRNA molecule forms with a complementary
sequence to the DNA
4) mRNA moves along the ribosome and each three bases is the code for one amino
acid, which are joined together to make a chain
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 3, 4, 1 c) 3, 1, 4, 2 d) 3, 2, 1, 4
5. Which of these statements is NOT true of mitosis?
a) It takes place in the somatic cells
b) It is involved in the formation of the gametes
c) It results in the formation of identical daughter cells
d) The cells produced have the same number of chromosomes as the parent cells
6. The regions of the body where meiosis takes place are the:
a) heart and lungs b) ovaries and testes
c) stomach and digestive system d) skin
7. A cell containing 46 chromosomes underwent meiosis. How many daughter cells
would be produced and how many chromosomes would they contain?
a) 2 daughter cells containing 46 chromosomes each
b) 2 daughter cells containing 23 chromosomes each
c) 4 daughter cells containing 46 chromosomes each
d) 4 daughter cells containing 23 chromosomes each

14. 8. One of the following is NOT a cause of genetic variation between individuals. Which
one?
a) Meiosis b) Mutation c) Differing diets d) Sexual reproduction
9. Which of these is the best description of natural selection?
a) The development of antibiotic resistant bacteria
b) The organisms best suited by their genes to a particular environment will be the
most likely to survive and breed, passing on their useful alleles
c) The organisms best suited to a particular environment will be the most likely to
survive and breed
d) The basis of variation
10. Which of the following is an example of continuous variation?
a) Male or female b) Height c) Tongue rolling d) Blood groups
Chapter 14: Genetics
1. The name of the scientist who discovered the way characteristics are passed from
parents to their offspring was:
a) Charles Darwin b) Joseph Lister c) Gregor Mendel d) Louis Pasteur
2. Dimple, no dimple, straight thumb or curved thumb are examples of:
a) Genes b) Chromosomes c) Mutations d) Alleles
3. A heterozygous organism:
a) looks the same as its parents b) contains the same alleles for a particular trait
c) contains different alleles for the same trait d) looks different from its parents
4. A recessive allele:
a) controls a characteristic even if only one copy of the allele is present
b) controls a characteristic only if it is present on both chromosomes
c) must be homozygous
d) is a mutation
5. Which of the following is NOT an example of monohybrid inheritance?
a) Dimples/no dimples b) Straight thumb/curved thumb
c) Dangly earlobes/attached earlobes d) Blue eyes/brown eyes
6. Which of these definitions is describing the phenotype of an individual?
a) Physical characteristics as a result of a particular genotype
b) The alleles of a particular gene
c) What an organism looks like
d) The type of organism it is
7. In a cross between round and wrinkled peas, this is the Punnett square for the
offspring.
Which of the following are the genotypes of the parents?
a) RR and Rr b) RR and rr c) Rr and rr d) Rr and Rr
8. In a genetic cross between a homozygous individual for dangly earlobes and a
homozygous individual for attached earlobes, what genotypes would you expect for
the offspring? D = dangly, d = attached
a) Half DD, half Dd b) All Dd c) Half DD and half dd d) All DD

15. 9. A Caribbean couple had an albino baby with pale skin and white hair. Which of the
following is the best explanation of how this happened?
a) Both parents carried a recessive allele for albinism
b) The baby developed a disease in the uterus
c) One of the parents had an albino allele
d) The baby had not been exposed to the sun
10. Scientists hope that genetic engineering will eventually allow us to cure genetic
diseases. Which of the following is a sex-linked genetic condition in humans?
a) Sickle cell anaemia b) Cystic fibrosis c) Down's syndrome d) Haemophilia
Chapter 15: Chronic diseases
1. Type I diabetes has to be treated with:
a) Exercise b) Injections of insulin c) Aspirin d) Regular intake of sugar
2. If a patient with diabetes falls into a hypoglycaemic coma what is the best way to treat
them?
a) Inject them with insulin b) Let them sleep
c) Give them sugar or chocolate d) Give them a drink of water
3. Which of the following is NOT a long term effect of poorly managed diabetes?
a) Amputation of the foot b) Kidney disease
c) Heart disease or strokes d) Gall stones
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true of obesity:
a) up to 40% of the population of Jamaica have a BMI of over 30
b) obesity is not linked to any major health problems
c) obese people are much more likely to suffer from heart disease and high blood
pressure
d) obese people have a higher risk of developing type II diabetes
5. One of these lifestyle factors does NOT increase your risk of obesity. Which one?
a) Eating lots of high-calorie food b) Eating fruit and vegetables
c) Taking little exercise d) Drinking a lot of alcohol
6. You are diagnosed with hypertension when your blood pressure is regularly over:
a) 140/80 b) 140/90 c) 120/80 d) 120/90
7. Which of the following factors does NOT increase your risk of developing
hypertension?
a) Increasing age b) High salt intake
c) Regular exercise d) Smoking
8. What happens when a doctor defibrillates the heart?
a) They give a person aspirin
b) They give a nitroglycerine tablet
c) They replace the blocked coronary arteries
d) They apply an electric shock across the heart to restore its normal rhythm
9. Which of the following triggers for asthma is most commonly found in the home?
a) Dust mites b) Flower pollen c) Cat fur d) Cold air
10. The adrenaline used in asthma reliever sprays:
a) prevents the production of mucus b) dilates the airways
c) calms the patient down d) slows down the breathing rate

16. Chapter 16: Infectious diseases caused by viruses and bacteria
1. Which of the following microorganisms are the smallest?
a) Virus b) Bacteria c) Mould d) Yeast
2. Which of the following is a description of a droplet infection?
a) Microorganisms entering the body through a break in the skin
b) Microorganisms entering the body through contaminated food and drink
c) Microorganisms are expelled through droplets when one person coughs, sneezes or
talks and these microorganisms are breathed in by another person
d) Microorganisms passed on by direct contact of the skin
3. Which of the following is NOT a natural barrier against disease?
a) Mucus b) Skin c) Scabs d) Clothing
4. An antigen is:
a) a protein which recognises foreign cells in the body
b) a special identifying protein found on the surface of a cell
c) one of the units which makes up a protein
d) a type of microorganism
5. Which of the following is not part of the way white blood cells are involved in
defending the body against pathogens?
a) Lymphocytes b) Antibodies c) Phagocytes d) Antibiotics
6. Pasteurisation is used to control the microorganisms in milk, beer and other foodstuffs.
The bacteria are killed by heating the foodstuffs to:
a) 100o
C b) 71.6o
C for at least 15 seconds
c) 135-150o
C for 2-6 seconds d) 170o
C for 1 hour
7.
i) Culture at no higher than 25o
C in a school laboratory
ii) Sterilise an inoculating loop in a hot Bunsen flame
iii) Secure the lid with short strips of tape
iv) Dip the sterilised loop into the bacteria you want to grow and make
zigzag streaks across the agar jelly in a petri dish
Put these statements in order to describe how to set up a culture of bacteria in a school
laboratory.
a) i, ii, iii, iv b) ii, iv, iii, i c) ii, iii, i, iv d) iv, ii, i, iii
8. Antibiotics are:
a) chemical agents that can be applied to the skin to kill bacteria
b) chemicals that can be used on floors, surfaces etc. to kill bacteria but are poisonous
to people
c) stains that can be used to make it easier to identify bacteria under the microscope
d) chemicals that kill bacteria or stop them growing but do not damage human cells
9. Vaccinations can protect you against diseases such as TB, polio and measles by
producing:
a) artificial passive immunity b) natural active immunity
c) artificial active immunity d) natural passive immunity

17. 10. A mother gives her baby immunity to some diseases through the placenta and in her
breast milk. This is known as:
a) artificial passive immunity b) natural active immunity
c) artificial active immunity d) natural passive immunity
Chapter 17: Infectious diseases in action
1. How are cold viruses spread from one person to another?
a) Contact b) Through contaminated food in the gut
c) By droplet infection d) By vectors
2. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of infection by the influenza virus?
a) High fever b) Aching joints c) Severe headaches d) Vomiting
3. The flu virus leaves your body very vulnerable to infection by other
microorganisms because:
a) it gives you a fever
b) it attacks and kills the ciliated epithelial cells that line the respiratory tubes
down to the lungs
c) it cause the production of a lot of mucus
d) it attacks and destroys the immune system
4. Which is the best description of pneumonia?
a) An infection of the lungs caused by a bacterium
b) An infection of the gut causing diarrhoea and vomiting which often occurs after
drinking infected water
c) An infection of the small airways of the lungs which can be caused by viruses
or bacteria and often sets in after another respiratory infection
d) An infection of the skin
5. Which of the following diseases is NOT an infection of the respiratory system?
a) Influenza b) Bronchitis c) Tuberculosis d) Cholera
6. Tuberculosis is a bacterial disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is
treated by:
a) antifungal medication b) antiseptics
c) antibiotics for at least six months d) antibiotics for at least two weeks
7. Which of the following types of organism does NOT cause gastroenteritis?
a) Fungi b) Viruses c) Bacteria d) Protoctista
8. Which of these instructions would NOT help prevent the spread of gastroenteritis?
a) Wash your hands after using the toilet
b) Enjoy lightly cooked meat, eggs and shellfish
c) Make sure the water you drink is clean and uninfected
d) Wash you hands thoroughly if you visit anyone infected with gastroenteritis
9. Which of the following statements refers to typhoid and not to cholera?
a) A bacterial infection of the gut b) Can cause diarrhoea
c) Only infects humans d) Passed from one person to another by infected water
10. Ringworm is an infection caused by:
a) Bacteria b) Fungus c) Viruses d) Protoctista

18. Chapter 18: Parasites and vectors
1. Which of the following is NOT an adaptation of a tapeworm for living in the
human gut?
a) Hooks and suckers on the head for attaching to the gut
b) Very thin body segments to absorb food from the gut
c) A lifecycle which involves other vectors e.g. pigs, cows
d) Give birth to live young
2. Which of the following medicines would NOT be prescribed by a doctor to help
get rid of a tapeworm infestation?
a) Anti-worm medicines b) Antibiotic medicines
c) Anti-parasitic medicines d) Anti-inflammatory medicines
3. Which of the following parasitic infestations is relatively minor and particularly
common in children?
a) Tapeworm b) Fluke c) Threadworm d) Flatworm
4. A vector is:
a) an organism which is linked to the spread of disease but does not cause disease
directly
b) a disease-causing organism
c) an organism which is passed from one host to another
d) an organism which is not linked to the spread of disease
5. Which of the following is NOT a common vector in the Caribbean?
a) Rats b) Cats c) Bats d) Mosquitoes
6. Malaria is caused by a single celled parasite called Plasmodium. How is it spread
from one person to another?
a) By drinking contaminated water
b) By the bite of the female Anopheles mosquito
c) By droplet infection
d) By failing to wash hands after using the toilet
7. It is easier to prevent mosquito-borne diseases than to treat them once people are
ill. Which of these statements carries the best advice for preventing the spread of
mosquito-borne diseases such as dengue and malaria?
a) Always use mosquito nets at the windows, clothing that covers the skin and use
mosquito repellent chemicals and pesticides to kill them in the home
b) Minimise opportunities for mosquitoes to breed by removing standing water
c) Biological and chemical pest control to reduce the numbers of mosquitoes
d) A combination of avoiding contact with mosquitoes using nets etc., using
repellants and pesticides, reducing breeding opportunities by removing standing water
and managing sewage, and using biological and chemical pest control on a large scale
on rivers etc.
8. Houseflies have been shown to carry approximately how many human pathogens?
a) 10 b) 50 c) 100 d) 200
9. Rats are the vectors of many diseases. The best known in the Caribbean is:
a) Plague b) Cholera c) Rabies d) Leptospirosis
10. Which of the following is not a severe symptom of leptospirosis?
a) Kidney failure b) Muscle aches
c) Liver damage and jaundice d) Internal bleeding

19. Chapter 19: Lifestyle diseases
1. What is an STD?
a) A chemical used to supply energy in the cells
b) A type of illegal drug
c) An antibiotic
d) An infectious disease spread through sexual contact
2. Which of these statements refers to gonorrhoea?
A) It causes mild symptoms in the early stages but can cause infertility,
arthritis etc. if it is not treated
B) Treatment with antibiotics is effective, particularly in the early stages
of the infection
C) It is spread by unprotected sex
D) It is caused by a virus and cannot be cured
a) A, B, C b) B, C, D c) A, C, D d) A, B, D
3. Which of the following statements would NOT help you avoid STDs?
a) Limit the number of sexual partners you have
b) Always use a male or female condom
c) Continue to have sex if you think you are infected
d) Notify all your sexual contacts immediately if you are infected
4. How does genital herpes differ from gonorrhoea and syphilis?
a) It is caused by bacteria b) It is caused by a virus
c) It can be cured using antibiotics d) It is spread by sexual contact
5. Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is NOT true?
a) HIV is the virus which causes AIDS
b) HIV/AIDS is spread through blood, semen, vaginal secretions and breast milk
c) Very few people in the Caribbean are affected by HIV/AIDS
d) Lifestyle choices such as abstinence, faithfulness to a partner and using a condom
when having sex all reduce the risk of becoming infected with HIV/AIDS
6. Which of the following is NOT a way in which women can reduce the risk of passing
HIV/AIDS to their baby?
a) Have screening for HIV and take drugs to reduce the risk of passing on the virus if
the result is positive
b) Bottle feed the baby instead of breast feeding
c) Give birth by Caesarean section
d) Avoid screening in case it damages the baby
7. Which of the following best describes addiction to a drug?
a) You like it
b) You cannot manage without it, crave the drug and generally need more and more of
the drug to keep functioning normally
c) You feel it is cool to use the drug
d) You cannot function without the drug
8. Which of the following is NOT a direct effect of alcohol?
a) Dilates blood vessels near the surface of the skin
b) Increases the heart rate
c) Makes you more likely to become infected with HIV/AIDS or to get pregnant
d) Makes you lose water through increased urination

20. 9. Which of the following commonly used drugs is illegal in the Caribbean?
a) Cannabis b) Caffeine c) Alcohol d) Nicotine
10. Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a) drug abuse often has a negative effect on the individual using the drug
b) drug abuse often has a negative effect on the family and friends of the drug user
c) drug abuse does not have a negative effect
d) drug abuse often has a negative effect on society as a whole
Chapter 20: Preventing disease
1. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Cold water makes you fat
b) If you eat more calories than you use you will gain weight
c) Margarine is not fattening
d) Pregnant women must eat for two
2. Which of the following foods would be the healthiest option to choose?
a) Burger b) Brown stew c) Baked chicken breast d) Fries
3. Jerk seasoning makes food taste good but we should use it in moderation because it
is high in:
a) Sugar b) Salt c) Fat d) Pepper
4. A diet containing a lot of salt increases your risk of suffering from:
a) High blood pressure b) Low blood pressure
c) Hyperactivity d) Diabetes
5. Exercise is good for you. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of exercise?
a) Reduces body fat b) Increases metabolic rate
c) Increases the fitness of the heart and lungs d) Increases the risk of diabetes
6. Which group of people are most likely to have a heart attack?
a) Normal weight, fit people b) Lean, unfit people
c) Obese, fit people d) Lean, fit people
7. A society can do a lot to reduce the risk of infectious diseases in the community.
Which of the following steps would NOT help reduce the impact of disease?
a) Careful disposal of sewage b) Having many sexual partners
c) Good vaccination programmes d) The use of antibiotic medicines
8. Here are four statements about personal hygiene. Which one is FALSE?
a) Bacteria on your skin feed on pheromones and other proteins in the sweat, oil
and dead skin cells, and their waste products smell unpleasant
b) Keeping the genital area clean helps avoid the risk of cystitis in girls
c) Washing the skin increases the risk of infections
d) Washing the penis regularly prevents the build-up of smegma in boys
9. Regular hand washing helps avoid the spread of disease because:
a) it makes the hands smell nice
b) it removes most of the bacteria we pick up when using the toilet, touching
animals or when we are around people who have an infection e.g. a cold
c) it helps maintain soft skin
d) it destroys viruses which can cause disease, but not bacteria
10. Good dental hygiene does NOT include:
a) brushing teeth regularly to avoid tooth decay and gum disease
b) eating plenty of sweet, sugary food before bed
c) flossing teeth regularly to avoid tooth decay and gum disease
d) having regular check-ups with a dentist

21. Chapter 21: Water and water management
1. Approximately what percentage of the human body is made up of water?
a) 30-40% b) 50-60% c) 60-70% d) 70-80%
Use the diagram to help you answer questions 2, 3 and 4
2. The process shown in this diagram by which water moves through the environment is
known as:
a) The nitrogen cycle b) The oxygen cycle
c) The water cycle d) The carbon cycle
3. The process by which water returns to earth is known as:
a) Snowing b) Precipitation c) Evaporation d) Condensation
4. The letters A, C and D represent the following processes:
a) evaporation, transpiration, respiration
b) evaporation, condensation, respiration
c) transpiration, respiration, condensation
d) evaporation, respiration, transpiration
5. The following statements describe the movement of water through a plant by
transpiration.
1) Water moves up through the stem and into the leaves to replace the water
lost by evaporation
2) Water is lost from the leaves by evaporation through open stomata
3) Water moves up from the roots into the stem
4) Water moves into the roots from the soil by osmosis
Put them in the correct order.
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 4, 3, 1, 2 c) 4, 3, 2, 1 d) 2, 3, 4, 1
6. Desalination is one way of producing water fit for drinking. Desalination involves:
a) removing salt from sea water
b) removing salt from fresh water
c) adding chemicals to the water to purify it
d) adding chlorine to the water to kill bacteria
7. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in a large scale water
treatment plant?
a) Pre-treatment → mixing → coagulation and flocculation → chlorination →
distribution
b) Screening → coagulation and flocculation → mixing → filtration → chlorination →
distribution
c) Screening → pretreatment → mixing → coagulation and flocculation → filtration
→ chlorination → distribution
d) filtration → pretreatment → coagulation and flocculation → mixing → screening →
chlorination → distribution

22. 8 Which of the following would NOT contaminate a well?
a) A badly sited pit latrine b) A freshwater spring
c) Runoff water from farmland d) Runoff water from housing
9 How might you purify water at home after a bad storm or hurricane?
a) Add salt to the water
b) Boil the water or add a small amount of bleach
c) Filter the water through a cloth
d) Add vinegar or wine to the water
10 Which of the following is NOT a way of reducing water use?
a) Turn off the faucet while brushing your teeth
b) Having a water-saving flush on the toilet
c) Having a bath instead of a shower
d) Having a shower instead of a bath
Chapter 22: Pollution and waste management
1. Which of the following is a definition of pollution?
a) The production of acid rain
b) The contamination of the air by harmful substances as a result of human activities
c) The contamination of the natural environment by harmful substances as a result of
human activities
d) The leaking of fertilisers and pesticides into waterways
2. Which of the following does NOT contribute to air pollution:
a) Smoke b) Sulphur dioxide c) Methane d) Nitrogen
3. What problem is caused by large amounts of smoke pollution?
a) Global warming b) Global dimming c) Greenhouse effect d) Ozone hole
4. Which of the following statements about the greenhouse effect is NOT true?
a) The greenhouse effect is important for keeping the temperature of the Earth warm
enough for animals and plants to live
b) Greenhouse gases include carbon dioxide and methane
c) Levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere are not increasing so there is no increase
in the greenhouse effect
d) An increase in greenhouse gases can lead to global warming
5. Which of the following is the best explanation of why felling rainforests may help to
cause global warming?
a) Trees take in carbon dioxide in photosynthesis and use it to make new trees. The
loss of trees means less carbon dioxide is taken out of the atmosphere. Burning the trees
or letting them rot returns more carbon dioxide to the atmosphere
b) Trees produce methane when they are cut down and this adds to the greenhouse
effect
c) It takes many large machines to fell a forest and they burn fossil fuels, releasing
carbon dioxide which adds to global warming
d) Trees take in carbon dioxide in photosynthesis and use it to make new trees. The loss
of trees means less carbon dioxide is taken out of the atmosphere
6. Which of the following is NOT an effect of pollution in the Caribbean?
a) The temperature of the seas is rising due to global warming and this is killing corals
b) Acid rain is changing the pH of the seas and breaking down the coral skeleton itself
c) The rate of growth of sugar cane is one of the highest for plants anywhere in the
world
d) Sewage is polluting our water and causing eutrophication

23. 7.
A) Microorganisms feeding on and decomposing the bodies use up lots of
oxygen, so that there isn't enough oxygen to support some of the fish and
other water animals which die and decompose adding to the problem
B) Fertilisers from farms or untreated sewage get into waterways
C) Nitrates and other minerals from fertilisers mean the water plants grow
very rapidly
D) Some of the plants die naturally, some die from lack of light due to
competition
Which is the correct sequence of events for the eutrophication of a waterway?
a) A, C, B, D b) A, B, C, D c) D, C, B, A d) B, C, D, A
8. In a sewage treatment plant both the liquid and the solid waste are broken down by:
a) Machines b) Bacteria c) Viruses d) Fungi
9. Which of the following statements is true for a dump but NOT for a landfill site?
a) The solid waste is covered regularly with soil
b) It is an open hole in the ground
c) There is a bottom liner which prevents liquid from the trash from draining into the
soil
d) It is built on top of or into the ground
10. Which of the following is NOT a key way in which we can cut back on the waste that
we produce?
a) Reduce b) Re-use c) Revisit d) Recycle

24. Adelphi Secondary School
Human and Social Biology
Multiple Choice
Study Help