IVMS-Autonomic Pharmacology Formative Exam with Answer Key

Marc Imhotep Cray, M.D.

Autonomics Formative Exam
Instructions: Select the One Best Answer

1. Symptoms that might be helpful in distinguishing between 'cholinergic
crisis'(e.g., overdose with cholinesterase inhibitors) and an acute
exacerbation of myasthenia gravis include:
A. increased salivation
B. muscle fasciculations (twitching)
C. profuse sweating
D. muscle weakness
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

2. Drug Y produces a slowing heart rate when injected intravenously into an
animal. This slowing in heart rate does not occur if the animal is
bilaterally vagotomized. Drug Y may be:
A. phenylephrine
B. levarterenol
C. methoxamine
D. isoproterenol
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

3. The rate-limiting step in the biosynthesis of norepinephrine involves the
enzyme:
1. tryptophan hydroxylase
2. phenylalanine hydroxylase
3. dopamine beta-hydroxylase
4. tyrosine hydroxylase
5. tryptophan decarboxylase


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4. Neurotransmitters found within the central nervous system include:
A. dopamine
B. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C. 5-hydroxytryptamine (Serotonin)
D. norepinephrine
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

5. Your pharmacology laboratory has been given a new compound for screening.
It is found to increase the heart rate but has no effect on the eye. It also
caused a significant reduction in diastolic blood pressure as well as
relaxation of the bronchial muscle. This compound would be categorized as:
1. antimuscarinic
2. beta agonist
3. beta antagonist
4. alpha antagonist
5. muscarinic

6. All of the following statements concerning the structure-activity
relationships of sympathomimetic amines are true EXCEPT:
1. the presence of a hydroxyl group in the 3 and 4 positions on the benzene
ring is characteristic of the "catechol" nucleus
2. resistance to monamine oxidase is conferred by alkyl substitution on the
alpha carbon of the phenylethylamine structure
3. the presence of hydroxyl groups in the 3 and 5 positions of a benzene
ring increases the specificity for beta-1 receptors in the lung
4. a large alkyl substitution on the amino group of a direct-acting
sympathomimetic increases the specificity for beta receptors
5. the absence of hydroxyl groups of the benzene ring of indirect-acting
sympathomimetic amines increases oral effectiveness

7. Recent investigation has demonstrated the existence of both presynaptic
alpha receptors (à2) and postsynaptic alpha receptors (à1). All of the following
statements concerning these alpha receptors are true EXCEPT:
1. clonidine is an à2 selective agonist
2. methoxamine and phenylephrine are à2 selective agonists
3. prazosin and phenoxybenzamine are à1 selective antagonists
4. phentolamine is a nonselective alpha antagonist
5. epinephrine and norepinephrine are nonselective alpha agonists


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8. All of the following statements concerning physostigmine and neostigmine are
true EXCEPT:
1. physostigmine and neostigmine are classified as reversible
cholinesterase inhibitors
2. neostigmine stimulates nicotinic receptors at ganglia and neuromuscular
junctions unlike physostigmine
3. physostigmine is well absorbed orally
4. a major problem encountered with neostigmine is the unpleasant central
nervous system effects which result from its administration
5. physostigmine is a tertiary amine and is able to penetrate the central
nervous system

9. All of the following statements are true concerning effects of intravenous
infusion of norepinephrine at 10 UG/Min EXCEPT:
1. an increase in pulse rate
2. an increase in pulse pressure
3. a marked increase in peripheral resistance
4. an increase in systolic blood pressure
5. an increase in diastolic blood pressure

10. Your pharmacology laboratory has been given an unknown compound for
screening.
It is found to contract the sphincter muscle of the eye, decrease the heart
rate, increase bronchial gland secretions and causes sweating. You would
classify this compound as (an):
1. antimuscarinic
2. alpha agonist
3. alpha antagonist
4. beta antagonist
5. muscarinic

11. True statements concerning the parasympathetic and sympathetic branches
of the
autonomic nervous system include:
1. parasympathetic branch predominates under normal physiologic conditions
while the sympathetic branch predominates during stressful episodes
2. acetylcholine is the chemical mediator at the ganglia of both branches
and causes stimulation of nicotinic receptors postsynaptically
3. the adrenal medulla acts as a postganglionic sympathetic neuron and
produces norepinephrine which travels via the bloodstream to stimulate
alpha, beta-1 and beta-1 receptors
4. 1,2
5. 1,3


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12. Which of the following statements is (are) correct concerning adrenergic
drugs?
A. at beta-1 receptors, isoproterenol is more potent than
epinephrine, which is equipotent with norepinephrine
B. at alpha-1 receptors, epinephrine is less potent than
norepinephrine, which in turn is much more potent than
isoproterenol
C. at alpha-1 receptors, epinephrine is equal to or more potent than
norepinephrine, which in turn is much more potent than
isoproterenol
D. at beta-2 receptors, isoproterenol is equal to or more potent than
epinephrine, which is much less potent than norepinephrine
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

13. All of the following statements concerning catecholamine biosynthesis
are true EXCEPT:
1. all of the enzymes involved with catecholamine biosynthesis are highly
specific for each substance
2. tyrosine hydroxylase is the rate-limiting enzyme in catecholamine
biosynthesis
3. the level of glucocorticoid influences the concentration of
phenyl-n-methyltransferase and hence the conversion of norepinephrine to
epinephrine
4. the conversion of tyrosine to dopa and dopa to dopamine occurs in the
cytoplasm of the adrenergic nerve terminal
5. the conversion of dopamine to norepinephrine via dopamine
beta-hydroxylase tales place within the granule of the adrenergic nerve
terminal


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14. Which of the following statements concerning the nerve action potential is
(are) correct?
A. an inhibitory neurotransmitter causes a selective decrease in
permeability to potassium and chloride resulting in
hyperpolarization (IPSP)
B. an excitatory neurotransmitter causes a selective increase in
permeability to all types of ions resulting in an excitatory
postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
C. conduction of the action potential refers to passage of an impulse
along an axon or muscle fiber
D. an inhibitory neurotransmitter causes a selective increase in
permeability to potassium and chloride resulting in
hyperpolarization (IPSP)
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. B,C,D
5. D only

15. Your pharmacology laboratory has received a new compound for screening.
Initial experimentation with the compound yields the following findings: It
causes contraction of the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder, contraction
of the sphincter muscle of the iris, and secretion of lacrimal glands. With
this information you might initially classify the compound as a(an):
1. alpha agonist
2. muscarinic agonist
3. beta agonist
4. anticholinergic
5. alpha antagonist

16. Respiratory effects of epinephrine include all of the following EXCEPT:
1. relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
2. inhibition of antigen-induced release of histamine
3. potent central nervous system stimulation
4. increase in respiratory rate and tidal volume
5. constriction of pulmonary vessels when administered as an aerosol


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17. Correct statements concerning receptor location include:
A. nicotine (N1) receptors have been found to occur at autonomic
ganglion cells
B. alpha adrenergic receptors have been found to exist on presynaptic
terminals (à1) in addition to other locations such as blood
platelets
C. beta adrenergic receptors have been found in the heart ( 1) and in
other sites ( 2)
D. muscarinic receptors have been localized to the autonomic effector
cells of the sympathetic nervous system
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

18. All of the following drugs are examples of direct acting beta agonists
EXCEPT:
1. phenylephrine
2. metaproterenol
3. isoetharine
4. albuterol
5. terbutaline

19. Which of the following statements concerning the intravenous administration
of catecholamines is (are) true?
A. isoproterenol causes a decrease in peripheral resistance and A
significant increase in pulse rate
B. norepinephrine causes an increase in pulse rate and peripheral
resistance
C. epinephrine causes an increase in pulse rate and a decrease in
peripheral resistance
D. norepinephrine causes an increase in systolic blood pressure and a
decrease in diastolic pressure
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above


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20. Preterm labor can be terminated by the use of drugs which cause relaxation
of uterine smooth muscle. Drugs which have been used for this purpose include:
A. fenoterol
B. ritodrine
C. terbutaline
D. metoprolol
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

21. Which of the following statements are true concerning the autonomic
nervous system?
A. the principle neurotransmitter of the sans is norepinephrine
B. the PANS is characterized by long preganglionic and short
postganglionic fibers
C. the principle neurotransmitter of the pans is acetylcholine
D. acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter that stimulates the adrenal
gland to release catecholamine
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

22. Your pharmacology laboratory has a new compound for screening. It is
found to cause tachycardia, mydriasis, urinary retention and cycloplegia. You
would classify this agent as a(an):
1. alpha agonist
2. ganglionic blocker
3. beta-1 agonist
4. nicotinic agonist

23. The most important mechanism for terminating the activity of released
norepinephrine from the presynaptic terminal is:
1. uptake-2
2. enzymatic destruction
3. diffusion into the systemic circulation
4. uptake-1
5. presynaptic receptor stimulation


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24. A pharmacology laboratory is given a new compound for screening. This
drug causes mydriasis and bradycardia, and causes pain and difficulty in
micturition. You would classify this compound as a(an):
1. alpha agonist
2. anticholinergic
4. beta blocker
5. nicotinic antagonist

25. All of the following drugs are examples of direct acting alpha agonists
EXCEPT:
A. phenylephrine
B. metaraminol
C. methoxamine
D. metaproterenol
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

26. A patient with a history of thioridazine ingestion enters the emergency room
exhibiting the following signs: delirium, mydriasis, tachycardia and dry skin.
A drug which could help you confirm the patient's ingestion is:
1. phenylephrine
2. naloxone
3. physostigmine
4. edrophonium
5. neostigmine

27. Your pharmacology laboratory has received a new alpha agonist for
screening. Which of the following effects would you expect to see if you initially
administer atropine followed by the alpha agonist?
A. mydriasis
B. bradycardia
C. urinary retention
D. salivation
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above


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28. Which of the following statements concerning the mechanisms of action of
autonomic drugs is (are) true?
A. atropine effectively antagonizes the action of acetylcholine at
muscarinic and nicotinic sites
B. quaternary anticholinesterase inhibitors exert both indirect and
direct effects at nicotinic sites
C. ganglionic blocking agents are not widely used today principally
because of the multiple CNS toxicities
D. alpha agonists are thought to stimulate the recently discovered
alpha receptors which have been subdivided into two populations:
alpha-1 (postsynaptic) and alpha-2 (presynaptic)
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

29. Which of the following statements accurately describe the concept
"transmitter economy"?
A. transmitter economy refers to the reuptake of released
catecholamine for subsequent reutilization in neurotransmission
B. transmitter economy refers to the reuptake of choline in the
synaptic cleft for reutilization in acetylcholine synthesis
C. transmitter economy refers to a process which helps to conserve
synaptic supplies of norepinephrine
D. transmitter economy is a process coined by Alexander Regan which
ascribes receptor down regulation to supply side economics
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

30. Which of the following statements are true?
A. terbutaline is relatively specific for Beta-2 receptors and is
used as a bronchodilator
B. guanethidine blocks responses to indirect acting sympathomimetic
amines and potentiates they actions of exogenous epinephrine by
inhibiting neuronal uptake
C. MAO (monoamine oxidase) is the enzyme which catalyzes the
oxidative deamination of catecholamines to form aldehyde
derivatives
D. yohimbine is an ergot alkaloid which has beta blocking activity
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above


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31. Correct statements concerning physostigmine and neostigmine include:
A. physostigmine and neostigmine are both classified as reversible
cholinesterase inhibitors
B. physostigmine, unlike neostigmine, is thought to exert a direct
stimulatory effect at nicotinic receptors
C. physostigmine is classified as a tertiary amine whereas
neostigmine is a quaternary salt
D. neostigmine should be used in place of physostigmine for reversal
of central anticholinergic toxicity
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

32. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
A. the veins are predominantly under sympathetic control
B. the heart is predominantly under sympathetic control
C. the urinary bladder is predominantly under parasympathetic control
D. the arterioles are predominantly under parasympathetic control
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All are correct

33. Correct statements regarding the D-2 receptor include:
A. the ergot alkaloids act as agonists at the receptor
B. the D-2 Receptor is generally less sensitive to dopamine agonists
than is the D-1 receptor
C. metoclopramide is felt to be a selective antagonist at the D-2
receptor
D. the prototype location for the D-2 receptor is the parathyroid
gland
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

34. All of the following classes of drugs can demonstrate anticholinergic side
effects EXCEPT:
1. tricyclic antidepressants
2. antihistamines
3. phenothiazines
4. anticonvulsants
5. All of the above


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35. Which of the following statements concerning anticholinesterases is (are)
true?
A. pyridostigmine is a quaternary compound which is administered
orally for the treatment of myasthenia gravis
B. they act as "decurarizing drugs and will reverse the antagonism of
competitive neuromuscular blocking agents
C. physostigmine is a tertiary compound which is regarded as the
anticholinesterase of choice for reversal of CNS anticholinergic
toxicity
D. unlike the tertiary anticholinesterases, quaternary compounds have
direct agonist effects at the neuromuscular junction
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

36. Potential sites for cholinergic synapses include:
A. autonomic effector sites, innervated by postganglionic
parasympathetic fibers
B. sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglion cells, and the adrenal
medulla
C. motor end-plates on skeletal muscles
D. certain synapses within the central nervous system
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

37. Your pharmacology laboratory has received a compound for testing
purposes. Initial experimentation with the compound yields the following
observations: It causes contraction of the radial muscle of the iris, constriction of
the arterioles of the skin and mucosa, and hyperglycemia. You would classify this
compound as a(an):
1. anticholinergic
2. beta blocker
3. alpha agonist
4. muscarinic
5. antimuscarinic

38. The rate-limiting enzyme in catecholamine biosynthesis is:
1. aromatic l-amino acid decarboxylase
2. dopamine-beta-hydroxylase
3. tryptophan hydroxylase
4. phenylalanine hydroxylase
5. None of the above


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39. Drugs which have no nicotinic activity, and are resistant to the activity of
acetylcholinesterase include:
A. acetylcholine
B. methacholine
C. carbachol
D. bethanechol
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

40. Examples of pharmacologic effects of ganglionic blocking drugs include:
A. cycloplegia
B. vasodilatation, increased peripheral blood flow; hypotension
C. anhidrosis
D. bradycardia
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

41. Correct statements regarding the anticholinergic drugs, atropine and
scopolamine, include:
A. scopolamine has a more potent action on the iris, ciliary body,
and certain secretory glands (salivary, bronchial, and sweat)
B. scopolamine does not depress the central nervous system in doses
that are used clinically and therefore is given in preference to
atropine for most purposes
C. atropine is more potent than scopolamine on the heart, intestine
and bronchial muscle
D. scopolamine has a longer duration of action that atropine
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only


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42. Which of the following metabolic effects are observed following epinephrine
administration?
A. decrease in uptake of glucose by peripheral tissues
B. increase in free fatty acids via activation of triglyceride lipase
C. transient increase in serum potassium due to release of the ion
from the liver
D. inhibition of insulin secretion via stimulation of beta receptors
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B only
4. B,D
5. All of the above

43. Correct statements regarding the pharmacological actions of anticholinergics
include:
A. gastric secretion is greatly altered by conventional doses of
belladonna alkaloids
B. full therapeutic doses of atropine sulfate produce definite and
prolonged inhibitory effects on the motor activity of the stomach,
duodenum, jejunum, ileum, and colon
C. anticholinergic doses needed to produce inhibition of
gastrointestinal motor activity are sufficient to depress salivary
secretion and usually produce ocular and cardiac effects
D. atropine reduces the secretion of pancreatic juice and bile
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. A,D
4. B and C
5. All of the above

44. All of the following statements regarding cholinergic blockage are true
EXCEPT:
1. muscarinic actions of all parasympathomimetic drugs are blocked
selectively by atropine, through competitive occupation of cholinergic
receptors
2. epinephrine and other sympathomimetic amines antagonize most muscarinic
effects at sites where adrenergic and cholinergic impulses produce
opposing effects
3. nicotinic effects of acetylcholine and its derivatives at autonomic
ganglia are blocked by hexamethonium
4. nicotinic effects of acetylcholine and its derivatives at the
neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle are antagonized by D-
tubocurarine
5. muscarinic effects of acetylcholine and its derivatives at autonomic
ganglia are blocked by hexamethonium


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45. Which of the following regulatory agents or conditions would be expected to
cause a decrease in the number of beta-adrenergic receptors?
A. propranolol
B. guanethidine
C. alcohol withdrawal
D. beta-adrenergic agonists
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

46. Which of the following statements regarding the central noradrenergic
neuron is (are) true?
A. alpha-methyl tyrosine can block the tyrosine hydroxylase reaction
in catecholamine biosynthesis via competitive inhibition
B. tetrabenazine and reserpine both interfere with the uptake storage
mechanism of the noradrenergic neuron; however the tetrabenazine
effects do not appear to be irreversible
C. norepinephrine has its action terminated principally by reuptake
into the presynaptic neuron
D. norepinephrine and dopamine present in a free state with the
presynaptic terminal can be degraded by COMT, which appears to be
located in the outer membrane of the mitochondria
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

47. All of the following drugs are classified as indirect or mixed acting agents
EXCEPT:
A. ephedrine
B. dopamine
C. amphetamine
D. dobutamine
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. None of the above; all are correct


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48. Ganglionic blockade would be expected to give rise to all of the following
EXCEPT:
1. arteriolar vasodilation, increased peripheral flow and hypotension
2. venodilation, pooling of blood, decreased venous return, and decreased
cardiac output
3. reduced gastrointestinal tone and motility; constipation
4. bradycardia
5. All of the above

49. All of the following statements concerning the effects of anticholinesterase
agents are true EXCEPT:
1. when applied topically to the anti-cholinesterase agents cause
conjunctival hyperemia, miosis, and constriction of the ciliary muscle
2. enhancement of gastric contractions and increased secretion of gastric
acid from parietal cells
3. augmentation of secretory function in bronchial, lacrimal, sweat,
salivary, gastric, and intestinal glands
4. increase the effective refractory period of cardiac muscle and decrease
the conduction time in conducting tissue
5. stimulation followed by depression or paralysis, of all autonomic
ganglia and skeletal muscle (nicotinic action)

50. The passage of impulses at autonomic ganglia can be influenced by drugs
that act to:
1. interfere with the storage of synthesis of the transmitter (e.g.,
hemicholinium)
2. prevent the liberation of acetylcholine from the preganglionic nerve
endings (e.g., botulinus toxin)
3. inactivate ganglionic cholinesterases (e.g., physostigmine)
4. either mimic or prevent the interaction between acetylcholine and its
ganglionic (nicotinic) cholinergic receptor sites
5. All of the above

51. Neurotransmitters found within the central nervous system include all of the
following EXCEPT:
1. 5-hydroxytryptamine
2. glutamate
3. GABA
4. dopamine
5. isoproterenol


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52. Manifestations of ganglionic blockade include:
A. mydriasis
B. urinary retention
C. tachycardia
D. decreased venous return
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

53. All of the following drugs act on beta-adrenergic receptors EXCEPT:
A. metaproterenol
B. isoetharine
C. terbutaline
D. bethanechol
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

54. Which of the following drugs has no nicotinic activity?
A. methacholine
B. pilocarpine
C. carbachol
D. bethanechol
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only

55. The drug which would be most effective in reversing the central
manifestations of anticholinergic toxicity is:
1. edrophonium
2. pyridostigmine
3. neostigmine
4. physostigmine
5. scopolamine


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56. Direct acting cholinergic agonists include:
A. physostigmine
B. muscarine
C. propantheline
D. pilocarpine
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

57. Which of the following drugs is an antagonist at nicotinic (N1)
receptors?
1. atropine
2. curare
3. scopolamine
4. hexamethonium
5. neostigmine

58. Which of the following drug classes do not demonstrate anticholinergic
effects?
A. phenothiazines
B. antiarrhythmics
C. antihistamines
D. tricyclic antidepressants
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only

59. Which of the following drugs is classified as a selective alpha-1 agonist?
1. prazosin
2. norepinephrine
3. phenylephrine
4. phenoxybenzamine
5. epinephrine

60. The activity of norepinephrine released at the synaptic cleft is terminated
principally by which of the following processes?
1. uptake-1
2. uptake-2
3. removal by the bloodstream
4. stimulation of presynaptic autoreceptors
5. enzymatic destruction within the synaptic cleft


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61. Your pharmacology laboratory is given a new compound for screening. It is
found to increase heart rate, reduce blood pressure and reduce uterine
contractility. You would classify this agent as:
1. beta agonist
3. nicotinic agonist
4. alpha antagonist
5. antimuscarinic

62. Drugs which exert their effects (either agonist or antagonist) on presynaptic
alpha receptors (alpha-2) include:
A. phenylephrine
B. clonidine
C. prazosin
D. yohimbine
1. A,B,C
2. A,B
3. A,C
4. B,D
5. C,D

63. Nicotinic receptors are situated at which of the following locations?
A. adrenal gland
B. neuromuscular junction
C. central nervous system
D. autonomic ganglia
1. A,B,C
2. A,B
3. A,C
4. B,D
5. All of the above

64. Drugs contraindicated in the management of patients with asthma include all
of
the following EXCEPT:
1. physostigmine
2. bethanechol
3. propranolol
4. atropine
5. methacholine


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65. All of the following statements concerning the cholinergic and adrenergic
receptors are true EXCEPT:
A. nicotinic (N2) receptors are found at the neuromuscular junction
B. nicotinic (N1) receptors are found at the autonomic ganglia
C. beta-1 receptors are found chiefly at cardiac sites and beta-2
receptors are found in smooth muscle and gland cells
D. alpha-1 receptors are localized to presynaptic terminals whereas
alpha-2 receptors are found at postsynaptic sites
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

66. Pharmacologic effects of ganglionic blocking drugs include:
A. cycloplegia
B. sweating
C. vasodilation, hypotension, increased peripheral blood flow
D. bradycardia
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

67. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter at which of the following cholinergic
receptor sites?
1. nicotinic
2. neuromuscular
3. nonnicotinic ganglionic
4. All of the above
5. 1,2

68. Prevertebral ganglia include:
1. superior cervical
2. superior mesenteric
3. celiac
4. 1,2
5. 2,3


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69. Monamine oxidase and catechol-o-methyltransferase are the true important
enzymes in the initial steps of catecholamine metabolism. The principal
resulting metabolites include:
A. 5-HIAA (5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid)
B. VMA (vanillylmandelic acid)
C. SKP (SKP-2-NXT-SER)
D. MHPG (3-methoxy-4-hydroxy phenylglycol)
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

70. Examples of indirect-acting sympathomimetics include:
A. amphetamine
B. methoxamine
C. hydroxyamphetamine
D. phenylephrine
1. A,B,C
2. A,C
3. B,D
4. D only
5. All of the above

71. An unknown compound causes miosis, drowsiness and mental clouding,
respiratory
depression, nausea and constipation. You would classify this compound as:
1. antimuscarinic
2. muscarinic
3. alpha agonist
4. alpha antagonist

72. Your basement pharmacology laboratory correctly identified an unknown
compound several years ago. This compound caused an increase in heart rate,
reduction in mean blood pressure and relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle.
This compound is marketed today under the names of:
1. propranolol
2. isoproterenol
3. trimethaphan
4. phenylephrine
5. bethanechol


Page 20


73. Your pharmacology laboratory has been given a new compound for
screening. It is found to increase heart rate, dilate the pupil, reduce glandular
secretions and decrease gastrointestinal motility. You would classify this
compound as
a(an):
1. alpha agonist
2. antimuscarinic
3. beta agonist
4. parasympathomimetic
5. beta agonist


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ANWER KEY:

1. correct answer: 5 category: Autonomics


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IVMS-Autonomic Pharmacology Formative Exam with Answer Key

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