sorted reviewer for LET

1. ENGLISH
Direction: Choose the best answer from the choices given.
1. It surely takes a lifetime for Edgar Allan Poe to forget his lost love, but he ________________ hard to
move on amidst tremendous loneliness and despair.
A. has been trying
B. has tried
C. had tried
D. had been trying
2. What can be the most appropriate follow-up sentence to the given statement below?
“I have been teaching for 34 years.”
A. So it is now time to quit
B. And I can’t imagine doing anything else
C. And I want this to end right now
D. And my children are now teachers, too
3. Emily Bronte ___________ her last novel when she died.
A. has written C. had written
B. had been writing D. has been writing
4. Which among the sentences below followed the correct order of adjectives?
A. She drives an expensive black Japanese sports car.
B. She drives a black Japanese expensive sports car.
C. She drives a black expensive Japanese sports car.
D. She drives an expensive Japanese black sports car.
5. Only 85% of the total number of applicants ___________ able to pass the entrance test last year.
A. are C. is
B. was D. were
6. Neither Emily Bronte nor her sister ____________ their real names in their writing career.
A. use C. using
B. uses D. has used
7. The man looks ____________.
A. strange C. stranger
B. strangely D. has strange
8. A number of whale species __________ now extinct because of illegal hunting and alarming change in
sea water temperature.
A. are C. were
B. is D. was
9. The problem that I encountered were ____________ for me to handle.
A. so much C. very much
B. too much D. too more
10. In Benjamin Franklin’s “Poor Richard’s Almanac” it was said that: early to bed, _____________
makes man healthy.
A. early rising C. early to rise
B. rising early D. waking up early
11. Which among these words has the voiceless /th/ sound?
A. These C. Think
B. Mother D. There

2. 12. Which word must have the primary stress in the sentence below if we want to emphasize possession?
“That’s my bag.”
A. that C. my
B. is D. bag
13. What pitch level must be used in starting a sentence?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
14. Which among the words below has the /sh/ sound?
A. Vision C. Sure
B. Leisure D. Salient
15. Your father isn’t working anymore, ____________?
A. is he C. has he
B. isn’t he D. hasn’t he
16. Their pertains to the pauses or rests in speech.
A. Pitch
B. Juncture
C. Stress
D. Intonation
17. I would not leave you come hell or high water. Based on the given sentence, we can surmise that:
A. the speaker won’t leave the person no matter what
B. the speaker warns the person of a forthcoming disaster
C. the speaker wants the person to give up
D. the speaker wants the person continue fighting
18. Her nervousness keeps her on her toes. The underlined phrase means:
A. she is always alert and cautious
B. she is always ready to fight
C. she is always confident
D. she is always on the go
19. Emily Dickinson was ostracized by her peers primarily because of her eccentric principles. The
underlined word means:
A. Criticized C. Excluded
B. Condemned D. Praised
20. The death of Ninoy Aquino prompted the conglomeration of people from different walks of life. The
words below are synonyms of the underlined word except:
A. Gathering C. Accumulation
B. Assembly D. Diffusion
21. For a non-believer, the noise heard during the street procession would seem cacophonous. The
underlined word means:
A. Loud and unpleasant
B. Loud and yet pleasant
C. Soft and yet unpleasant
D. Soft and pleasant
22. Which among the sound below is a voiceless sound?
A. /dz/ C. /z/
B. /g/ D. /sh/
23. Which among the words below does not belong?
A. Conceal C. Reveal
B. Screen D. Obscure
24. A paragraph is believed to have coherence if:
A. the sentences are all about the topic sentence
B. the sentences are smoothly connected with each other through transitional devices
C. the sentences are correctly written in terms of grammar rules
D. the sentences are independent

3. 25. Aside from being renowned writer, Carl Sanburg is also believed to have the gift of gab. The
underlined word means:
A. The ability to speak clearly
B. The ability to speak persuasively
C. The ability to speak honestly
D. The ability to speak accurately
26. Which among the sounds below does not belong?
A. /p/
B. /f/
C. /s/
D. /v/
27. As a historian, Herodotus never missed any salient point in his creation “The Histories”. The words
below are synonyms of the underlined word except.
A. Leading
B. Relevant
C. Significant
D. Minor
28. Which among the sounds below does not belong?
A. /m/
B. /w/
C. /b/
D. /n/
SONNET 18
Shall I compare thee to a summer’s day
Thou art more lovely and more temperate
Rough winds do shake the darling buds of May
And summer’s least hath all too short a date
29. The sonnet above is an example of a:
A. Shakespearean sonnet C. Jacobean sonnet
B. Petrarchan sonnet D. Italian sonnet
30. What is the rhyme scheme of the first quatrain of the given sonnet?
A. ABAB C. AABA
B. ABBA D. AABB
31. This is a collection of stories told by the pilgrims while on their way to the chapel of Canterbury.
A. The Canterbury Tales
B. The Canterbury Collection
C. The Canterbury Flies
D. The Canterbury Saga
32. “One thousand hands made the pyramids of Egypt.” What figure of speech was used in the given
statement?
A. Synecdoche C. Onomatopoeia
B. Metonymy D. Metaphor
And I shall be telling this with a sigh
Somewhere ages and ages hence
Two roads in the woods and I
I took the one less travelled by
And that has made all the difference
33. The lines above are taken from what particular poem?
A. The Road not Taken
B. Stopping by the Woods on a Snowey Evening
C. Fire and Ice
D. The Raven
34. Who is the author behind the lines given above?
A. Oscar Wide C. Robert Frost
B. Rudyard Kipling D. Walt Whitman

4. 35. This is the first accepted masterpiece in Philippine Literature in English.
A. Dead Stars C. My Father Goes to Court
B. Small Key D. Desire
36. If Salvador Lopez advocates Proletariat literature, who adheres to the concept of “art for art’s sake”
A. Jose Garcia Villa
B. F. Sionil Jose
C. Nick Joaquin
D. Amador Daguio
37. Which does not characterize our country’s primitive literature?
A. Mainly in oral tradition
B. Some were written in not so sturdy materials such as leaves and woods.
C. Recognizes the existence of a supreme being
D. Has continued to flourish in the colonial times
38. Which does not describe the illustrados?
A. Filipinos who were able to study abroad
B. Filipino painters in Spain
C. Filipino who ask for change in the society
D. Filipinos who left the country for good
39. This period is considered as the Golden Age of Filipino Language.
A. Japanese Regime C. Spanish Regime
B. American Regime D. Marcos Regime
40. This is Nick Joaquin’s masterpiece that talks about the pagan “tadtarin”/ “tatarin” ritual.
A. May Day Eve C. Summer Solstice
B. Woman with Two Navels D. Ermita
41. They are considered as the first teachers in the Philippines who taught English in a formal classroom
setting.
A. American Regime C. The Thomasians
B. The Thomasites D. The Sophists
42. Who wrote the short story “The Weeding Dance” which is about the ill-fated love of Awiyao and
Lumnay?
A. Amador Daguio C. Estrella Alfon
B. Manuel Arguilla D. Paz Latorena
43. If a student has familiarity with the sounds of the language, he/she is said to have:
A. Garphophonemic skills
B. Phonemic awareness
C. Vocabulary
D. Fluence
44. If the student can relate the words in a sentence with each other to create a significant idea, he/she is
to have:
A. Phonemic awareness
B. Vocabulary
C. Fluency
D. Comprehension
45. “The wind kisses my cheeks.” What figure of speech is used in the given statement?
A. Personification
B. Metaphor
C. Simile
D. Onomatopoeia
For poetry never says;
It unsays. To say
Is to confine, contain,
To unsay is to explore the
Vaguely all hovering
Presence of the unseen,
Deliberately left-out

5. 46. What can be inferred from the lines of the given poem?
A. that a poem must not reveal itself to its readers easily
B. that a poem must have no words
C. that a poem must be detailed
D. that a poem must have deep words
47. Which statement is not a correct inference from the lines of the given poem?
A. that the beauty of the poem relies on the transformation of the familiar to the unfamiliar.
B. that a poem must not give everything to the readers.
C. that a poem must be transparent-the meaning of it must clearly drawn out.
D. that a poem must be read-intelligently- one must look into metaphors and symbolism used
48. The editor found the new story not so entertaining. He found it full of:
A. adjectives C. pronouns
B. verbs D. adverbs
49. “On the street of this position of God’s world I feel neighbor to a rat, so brother of a worm; Forever
chasing rainbows at muddy margins.” This line on Quemeda’s poem is saying that:
A. Life is fruitful
B. Life is not worth living
C. Life is empty and meaningless
D. Life is full of challenges
50. “The whale has no famous author and whaling no famous chronicles, “Based on this line from the
novel, Moby Dick is treated as:
A. Whaling is not truly structure.
B. Whales are ordinary creatures.
C. Whale is a wild mammal that haunts mariners.
D. Whaling is an old hobby.
51. Venus is an exemplification of feminine. Pulchritude means:
A. Plain C. Ugliness
B. Beauty D. Homeliness
52. After 7 depressing years, Mitch finally quit the job. She ______ along with her superior for a long time
before she finally decided to look for a new position.
A. didn’t get C. hasn’t been getting
B. isn’t getting D. hadn’t been getting
53. Five years of intensive language study are required for second language learners. Chun-Li ________
English for three years, but she will need more training to be more proficient.
A. has studied
B. will have been studying
C. has been studying
D. will be studying
54. The laborers are so happy that _____ now reaping the fruit of _____ efforts.
A. they’re-their C. there-their
B. they’re-there D. their-their
55. This seatwork is difficult for Paul and _____.
A. Myself C. Me
B. I D. Himself
56. The candy cane smells ______.
A. Sweet C. Sweeter
B. Sweetly D. More sweet
57. A comma indicates:
A. Pause C. longer pause
B. Slight pause D. no pause
58. Which word has the C pronounced as /k/?

6. A. Century C. City
B. Cold D. Censure
59. Which word is accented on the first syllable?
A. Fifteen
B. Outspeak
C. Understand
D. Heaven
60. Which word has the C pronounced as /s/?
A. Censure
B. Connote
C. Comma
D. Collaborate
61. She is riding _____ a plane.
A. In C. at
B. On D. into
62. What makes the sentence below erroneous?
“I have written a letter yesterday.”
A. Yesterday
B. Have
C. A
D. Letter
63. What is NOT true about the present perfect tense?
A. The action started somewhere in the past and continued up until present.
B. It must bear with it the auxiliary verb has/have, plus the past participle form of the verb.
C. The action still happening at present or just recently ended.
D. The action is happening at present and may still happen in future
64. Read the poem below:
“That the wind seraphs of heaven
Coveted her and me
That is the reason, not so long ago
In a kingdom by the sea
A wind blew out of a cloud
Chillin and killin my Annabel Lee”
What can be the cause of death of Annabel Lee?
A. Consumption C. HIV
B. Dengue D. Hepatitis
65. What is TRUE about the Past Perfect Tense?
A. There must be two past actions
B. The auxiliary verb must be “has”
C. The main verb must be in the present pariticipial phrase
D. The auxiliary verb “had” must not be used
66. This tense connotes actions that are happening at present time, meaning right now.
A. Present Tense
B. Past Tense
C. Progressive Tense
D. Present Tense
67. Filipino as language blossomed during the time of the _________.
A. Japanese C. Spanish
B. American D. Commonwealth
68. Who is considered the goddess of Philippine society?
A. Ophelia Alcantara Dimalanta
B. Teresa Subido
C. Aida Rivera Ford
D. Angela Manalang Gloria

7. 69. The underlined word in the sentence below is an _________?
“She took the early train.”
A. Adjective C. Apostrophe
B. Adverb D. Appositive
70. Jose Rizal’s novel Noli Me Tangere is inspired by the novel written by Harriet Beecher Stowe titled
_________.
A. Uncle Tom’s Cabin C. Tom Sawyer
B. Les Miserables D. War and Peace
71. The family that ______ together, _______ together.
A. prays-stays C. prayed-stayed
B. pray-stay D. praying-staying
72. One thirds of the population ______ poor.
A. is C. was
B. are D. were
73. Neither Jordan nor his brothers _______ leaving the company.
A. is C. was
B. are D. were
74. Which sound is a voiced bilabial stop?
A. /b/ C. /k/
B. /p/ D. /t/
75. The teacher was asked to speak for her students when they won the speech choir competition, and
so she says “_________ of my students, I want to thank you.”
A. On behalf C. Because
B. in behalf D. For
76. Which of the following inspired Rizal’s El Filibusterismo?
A. The execution of GOMBURZA
B. The death of Andres Bonifacio
C. The death of his father
D. The imprisonment of his mother
77. What is the First American School in the Philippines that aims in teaching the Filipinos how to use the
English Language.
A. Philippine Normal University
B. Far Eastern University
C. University of Santo Tomas
D. University of the Philippines
78. In Development Reading, this pertains to the familiarity of the students toward the sounds of the
language.
A. Phonemic awareness C. Syntax
B. Phonology D. Semantics
79. In Developmental Reading, this pertains to the ability of the learner to relate the written symbol to its
corresponding sound.
A. Phonemic awareness C. Syntax
B. Phonics D. Semantics
80. English Sonnet: Shakespeare, Italian Sonnet:
A. Alighieri C. Boccaccio
B. Petrarch D. Dante
81. In Reading, IRI means:

8. A. Informal Reading Intervention
B. Informal Reading Inventory
C. Informal Reading Innovation
D. Informal reading Integration
82. In the cueing system, this pertains to the structure of grammar.
A. phonology C. morphology
B. semantics D. syntax
83. In the cueing system, this is about vocabulary and coming up with meanings in a context.
A. phonology C. morphology
B. semantics D. syntax
84. I n the cueing system, this pertains to the information of sounds of the language.
A. phonology C. morphology
B. semantics D. syntax
85. The poem “The Road Not taken” which road did the traveler take?
A. Clear road
B. Road less travelled
C. high way
D. Streets
86. Who wrote the novel “A Christmas Carol” which is about a man who hates Christmas?
A. Charles Dickens
B. Oscar Wilde
C. H.G Wells
D. D.H. Lawrence
87. “She is a star in the heavens above.” What figure of speech is used?
A. Simile
B. Metaphor
C. Personification
D. Hyperbole
88. What figure of speech is used in the sentence below?
“I can eat a whole cow!”
A. Simile
B. Metaphor
C. Personification
D. Hyperbole
89. Mark Twain’s novels Tom Sawyer and Huckleberry Finn are set in the ________ river.
A. Nile C. Amazon
B. Mississippi D. Rio Grande
90. The words “inadequate, disembark, uneducated, and illegitimate” have prefixes that are:
A. Positive C. Negative
B. Common D. Neutral
91. Which does not belong?
A. Assumption C. Synthesis
B. Summary D. Generalization
92. Which sounds like “shine”?
A. cry C. fry
B. brine D. why
93. The speaker approached the stage with his spiel. His hands were shaking and he was sweating
tremendously. He experienced:
A. Heart attack C. Stage fight
B. Nausea D. Epilepsy
94. “He was like a snake in the night”, what figure of speech in present?
A. Personification
B. Simile
C. Metaphor
D. Apostrophe

9. 95. “To be or not to be, that is the question” this line is taken from what particular Shakespearean play?
A. Hamlet C. Macbeth
B. Romeo and Juliet D. The Ghost
96. “The train arrived early.” The underlined word is an _______.
A. Adjective C. Adverb
B. Verb D. Noun
97. What figure of speech is used in the sentence below?
“Oh Zeus look down on your people”
A. Simile
B. Metaphor
C. Personification
D. Apostrophe
98. “The voice resounds across the universe.” What figure of speech is used?
A. Hyperbole C. Personification
B. Simile D. Metaphor
99. To make a fantastic group work, each member must put his/her finger in the pie. The underlined
phrase means:
A. Bake a pie C. join a group
B. Taste a pie D. participate in a group
100. The suspect was spared because all he said were all white lies. The underlined word phrase means:
A. Lies that bare harmless
B. Lies recited are illogical
C. lies are type written
D. the lies are made in public.

10. KEY TO CORRECTION:
English
1. A
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. A
8. A
9. B
10. C
11. C
12. C
13. B
14. C
15. A
16. B
17. A
18. A
19. C
20. D
21. A
22. D
23. C
24. B
25. B
26. A
27. D
28. D
29. A
30. A
31. A
32. A
33. A
34. C
35. A
36. A
37. D
38. B
39. A
40. C
41. B
42. A
43. B
44. D
45. A
46. A
47. C
48. C
49. D
50. B
51. B
52. D
53. C
54. A
55. C
56. A
57. B
58. B
59. D
60. A
61. B
62. B
63. D
64. A
65. A
66. C
67. A
68. A
69. A
70. A
71. A
72. B
73. B
74. A
75. A
76. A
77. A
78. A
79. B
80. B
81. B
82. D
83. B
84. A
85. B
86. A
87. B
88. D
89. B
90. C
91. A
92. B
93. C
94. B
95. A
96. C
97. D
98. A
99. D
100. A

11. MATHEMATICS
1. The average of 5 students is 85. The average of the first 2 students is 88. What is the average of the
other 3 students?
A. 81 C. 83
B. 82 D. 84
2. Solve for x. 2 ½ : x = 10:4
A. 2 C. ½
B. 1 D. 3
3. 12.5 % of 30 is what number?
A. 3.5 C. 4.75
B. 3.75 D. 4.5
4. 0.12 is what percent of 24?
A. 0.5%
B. 0.05%
C. 0.005%
D. 5%
5. Last year, 2000 students enrolled in MET Review classes. This year, enrollment increased by 8%. How
many students enrolled this year?
A. 2160
B. 2100
C. 2200
D. 2180
6. A TV set that originally cost P15,000 is now sold P12, 000. What is the percentage decrease in the
price of the TV set?
A. 5% C. 10%
B. 15% D. 20%
7. A 180-degree angle is divided into 3 in the ratio 1:3:5. What is the measure of the biggest angle?
A. 80º C. 120º
B. 60º D. 100º
8. After receiving a 20% discount, Lawrence paid P180 for an item. What is the regular price of the item?
A. P250 C. P225
B. P275 D. P200
9. A store allows 25% discount of all items. How much does a buyer pay for an item which is marked
P1200?
A. P900
B. P1000
C. P950
D. P850
10. The number of hours spent for review in Science, English and Math is in the ratio 2:1:5. How many
hours does each other student spend for Math in a 120-hour review package?
A. 75 C. 70
B. 50 D. 60
11. Three boys have marbles in the ratio of 19:5:3. If the boy with the least number has 9 marbles, how
many does the boy with the greatest number have?
A. 48 C. 60
B. 81 D. 57
12. Arnel borrowed P10, 000 from the bank at the rate of 13% per year. How much will he owe the bank
after year?
A. P12, 000 C. P11, 000
B. P11, 300 D. P11, 400
13. What is the total sales if for a 15% rate of commission, an agent gets P10, 500?
A. P70, 500 C. P70, 000

12. B. P80, 500 D. P80, 000
14. A salesman gets 12% commission for the first P15, 000 and 10% for the amount over P15, 000 of his
total sales. How much does he get for a total sales of P30, 600?
A. P3400 C. P3340
B. P3360 D. P3460
15. How much should a man deposit in a bank at 8% interest if he wants to gain P 1, 600 in a year?
A. P16, 000 C. P18, 000
B. P15, 000 D. P20, 000
16. A car is able to travel 210 km in 3 hours. How far can it travel in 8 hours?
A. 600 km C. 500 km
B. 560 km D. 660 km
17. Jean buys 3 apples for P50. How much does she pay for a dozen of these apples?
A. P150
B. P220
C. P200
D. P180
18. To finish a certain job in 6 days, 8 workers are needed. If it is required to finish the same job 2 days
earlier, how many workers have to work?
A. 12 C. 6
B. 10 D. 14
19. An amount of P2100 is to be divided among 3 children John, Jay and Joseph. Jay will receive double
that of John and Joseph will receive double that of Jay. How much will Joseph receive?
A. P6000
B. P8000
C. P1000
D. P1200
20. Manny can finish typing 5 pages in 8 minutes. How long will it take him to finish 12 pages?
A. 19.2 minutes
B. 19 minutes
C. 18.2 minutes
D. 18 minutes
21. A rectangular figure is 6 inches wide and 1 foot long. If the width is to be decreased by 2 inches, by
how much should the length be increased, if the area remains the same?
A. 8 inches
B. 2 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 4 inches
22. Which of these numbers does NOT belong to the group?
A. 83
B. 91
C. 71
D. 97
23. Lito spent half of his money in SM and half of the remaining at Rustan Store. If he had 250 left, how
much did he have at the start?
A. P1000
B. P1200
C. P1500
D. P1600
24. Maria brought 120 handkerchiefs at 10 pesos each. Then she sold them at 3 handkerchiefs for P50. If
she sold all the handkerchiefs, how much profit did she make?
A. P600
B. P800
C. P850
D. 650
25. The price of one seat in a theatre is P40 and an average of 400 persons enter everyday. If the price
was increased to P50, how many persons would yield the same amount to the theatre?
A. 300 C. 350
B. 340 D. 320
26. A man is 4 times as old as his son. Five years ago, the sum of their ages is 65. How old is the son?
A. 18 C. 10
B. 15 D. 12
27. A square has an area of 400 sq. cm. What is its perimeter?

13. A. 80 cm C. 100 cm
B. 60 cm D. 120 cm
28. The surface area of cube is 50 sq.cm. What is the volume of the cube?
A. 64 cu. cm. C. 81 cu. cm.
B. 300 cu. cm. D. 125 cu. cm.
29. A rectangular sheet of paper is folded in half. Then it is folded again in half. If the foldings in half is
done 5 times, the edges are creased each time, how many small rectangles will you see when you unfold
the original sheet of paper?
A. 16 C. 32
B. 25 D. 24
30. 1/6, 1/3, ½ , 2/3, 5/6, ____
A. ¾ C. 7/6
B. 1 D. ¼
31. If the diagonal of a table with square top is 6 ft., what is the area of the table top?
A. 18 ft. C. 36 sq. ft.
B. 18 sq. ft. D. 36 ft.
32. If m > 0 and n < 0, which of the following is true?
A. m/n = 0 C. 1/m > 1/n
B. mn > 0 D. 1/n > 1/m
33. Find the value of (8x2) -3 when x = 1.
A. 1/216 C. 1/81
B. 216 D. 81
34. Simplify: ( x2/y2) 2 (y2/x)3
A. x/y4 C. xy4
B. x4/y D. x4y
35. A, B and C are consecutive whole numbers. If A>B>C, what is the value of (A-B) (A-C) (B-C)?
A. 1
B. -1
C. 2
D. -2
36. If x is an odd integer and y is an even integer, which of the following is an odd iteger?
A. 2x-y
B. x2 + y-1
C. x2 + 3y
D. x-1
37. Simplify: 12 1/8 – 3 5/6 – 7 2/3
A. 1/8
B. 1 5/8
C. 5/8
D. 3/8
38. Simplify: (3x+5) – [3x – (-x + 1) -3]
A. –x – 9
B. -9 + x
C. 9 + x
D. 9 – x
39. A dinner menu offers choices of 5 appetizers, 8 main dishes and 2 desserts. How many ways can you
choose one of each course?
A. 15
B. 5!8!2!
C. 15!
D. 80
40. A ball is drawn at random from a box containing 3 red balls, 4 white balls and 5 blue balls. Find the
probability that the ball is NOT red.
A. ¼
B. ¾
C. 2/9
D. 1/3
41. When a pair of fair dice is thrown, what is the probability of getting a sum of 9?
A. 2/3 B. 1/9

14. C. 2/9 D. 1/3
42. Simplify: 420/240
A. 1 C. 220
B. 4 D. (1/2)20
43. A big garden has a triangular shape. It has a height of 12 meters and a base of 9 meters. What is its
area?
A. 54 m2 C. 122 m2
B. 42 m2 D. 106 m2
44. How many ounces of pure acid must be added to 20 ounces of a solution that is 5% acid to make a
mixture that is 24% acid?
A. 5 C. 10
B. 3 D. 2
45. In how many ways can a coach assign the 5 starting positions in basketball to 10 equally qualified
men?
A. 252 C. 5
B. 30, 420 D. 10
46. In how many ways can 8 guests be seated in a round table with 8 chairs?
A. 8!
B. 7!
C. 5!
D. 6!
47. In how many ways may a rural health officer assign one or more of 6 available barangay health
workers?
A. 6!
B. 6
C. 5!
D. 63
48. A committee of 5 persons must be selected from a group of 5 men and 8 women. In how many ways
may the selection be made with no restrictions?
A. 154440 C. 13P5
B. 1287 D. 5!13!
49. The value of k for which the number 128k0 is divisible by 4?
A. 1 C. 5
B. 3 D. 8
50. One side of a rectangle is x inches. If the perimeter is P inches, what is the length (in inches) of the
other side?
A. 2x + p/2 C. p + x/2
B. p-2x/2 D. 2x – p/2
51. 36.6 % in terms of fraction.
A. 183/1000 C. 366/100
B. 366/500 D. 183/500
52. 2 1/6 in terms of percent
A. 216.6% C. 216 2/3%
B. 216 1/3% D. 216%
53. P12, 500 is what percent of P50, 000?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 25%
D. 20%
54. P15800 decreased by 12.5% is how much?
A. P13, 800
B. P13, 525
C. P13, 285
D. P13, 825
55. ¾ of 1/3 of 30 is what % of 60?

15. A. 15.625% C. 26.89%
B. 25.89% D. 25.79%
56. What is 16 2/3 % of 42?
A. 7
B. 6
C. 5
D. 7.5
57. John jogs every morning. Yesterday, he covered 2 km. Today he covers 2 km. What is the percent of
increase in the distance he traveled?
A. 50% C. 10%
B. 25% D. 20%
58. A 180 – degree angle is divided into 3 in the ratio 1:2:3. What is the measure of the biggest angle?
A. 45º C. 60º
B. 90º D. 30º
59. What is the area of a rectangle of width 10 inches and perimeter of 120 inches?
A. 200 sq. in. C. 400 sq. in.
B. 300 sq. in. D. 500 sq. in.
60. Jay invested P 4, 500 in a buy and sell. How much will his money be in 3 years if it earns 12.5%
simple interest rate in a year?
A. P6, 187.50
B. P6, 188
C. P6, 187
D. P6, 189.50
61. A store allows P15 discount on all items. How much does a customer pay for an item which is marked
P800?
A. P700
B. P790
C. P680
D. P785
62. What is the percentage commission if a salesman gets P 800 from a total sale of P15, 000?
A. 5% C. 5 1/3%
B. 5.5% D. 5.3%
63. The side of a square of area x2 – 4x + 4
A. x – 4 C. x - 2
B. x + 4 D. x + 2
64. Five liters of gasoline can travel a distance of 70 km. how far can 8 liters reach?
A. 80 km.
B. 50 km.
C. 100 km.
D. 112 km.
65. At 75 kph. Jigs can reach home within 50 minutes. At what rate should he drive his car so that he can
reach home 10 minutes earlier?
A. 80 kph. C. 60 kph.
B. 93.75 kph. D. 90 kph.
66. The area of a circle with circumference 4¶
A. 4𝜋 C. 6 𝜋
B. 2𝜋 D. 3 𝜋
67. Find X: 2 1/3 = 1 1/6
X 6
A. 4 C. 6
B. 10 D. 12
68. An angle which measures between 0º and 90º
A. Acute C. Right
B. Obtuse D. Supplementary
69. Two angles whose sum of degrees is equal to 180º

16. A. Complimentary
B. Supplementary
C. Obtuse
D. Vertical
70. Two complementary angles are in the ratio 1:4. What is the smaller angle?
A. 40º C. 72º
B. 18º D. 36º
71. An angle which measures greater than 90º but less than 180.
A. Acute
B. Supplementary
C. Right
D. Obtuse
72. In an isosceles right, triangle, the hypotenuse is 12 cm long. What is the length of one of its congruent
legs?
A. 5√2 cm C. 6√2 cm
B. 5 cm D. 6 cm
73. A rectangular farm has dimensions 500 meters by 40 meters. Find its area in hectares.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 2.5
D. 3.5
74. What is the area of a triangle of sides 4, 7 and 9 units?
A. 6 sq. units C. √6 sq. units
B. 5 sq. units D. √5 sq. units
75. The circumference of a circle of area 4 𝜋.
A. 4𝜋 C. 2 𝜋
B. 𝜋 D. 3 𝜋
76. The area of a circle of diameter 10 units.
A. 25 sq. units
B. 25 𝜋 sq. units
C. 5 sq. units
D. 5 𝜋 sq. units
77. The area of a triangular garden of base 20 ft. and altitude 10 ft.
A. 50 sq. ft.
B. 10 sq. ft.
C. 80 sq. ft.
D. 100 sq. ft.
78. One of the legs of a right triangle is 5 cm long and its hypotenuse is 15 cm. How long is the other leg?
A. 10 cm C. 8 cm
B. 10 √2 cm D. 8 √2 cm
79. In the figure, ADE ~ ABC. If AD = 6, DE = 9 and AB = 10, what is BC?
A
D E
B C
A. 8 C. 15
B. 10 D. 12
80. What type of a regular polygon is one whose interior angle measures 108 degrees?
A. Heptagon B. Pentagon

17. C. Octagon D. Hexagon
81. What is the sum of the measure of the angles of a convex octagon?
A. 900º
B. 1200º
C. 1800º
D. 1080º
82. What is the average of 1/3, ¼ and 1/6?
A. ¼ C. ¾
B. ½ D. 4/3
83. A meter stick was cut into 2 pieces at the 36 cm – mark. What is the ratio of the smaller piece to the
larger piece?
A. 16:25 C. 9:25
B. 13:50 D. 9:16
84. 2 + 3P, 4 + 2P, 6 + P, _______
A. 4 + P
B. 8
C. 4 – P
D. 6
85. ½, 2/3, 5/6 ______
A. 2 C. 1
B. 1/6 D. 5/6
86. Find the quotient: (3/4 – 2/3) + (5/6 – 3/5)
A. 1/14 C. 3/14
B. 4/14 D. 5/14
87. A, B and C are all working in a certain company, they are all on leave. A will file a leave every 4 days,
B every 6 days and C every 8 days. When will they be all on leave?
A. After 24 days C. After 20 days
B. After 16 days D. After 18 days
88. Juan drives 5 ¾ km. to work and drives home the same day, for five working days a week, how many
kilometers does he drive each week?
A. 57 km.
B. 57.5 km.
C. 58 km.
D. 57 km.
89. The average of 4 numbers is 28. If 3 of the 4 numbers are 18, 28 and 36, what is the 4th number?
A. 30 C. 26
B. 28 D. 24
90. The polynomial x2 + 4x – 32 is the area of a rectangular floor. What is the length of one of its sides?
A. x – 2 C. x + 8
B. x + 4 D. x + 2
91. aº = ? a ≠ 0
A. Underlined C. 0
B. Indeterminate D. 1
92. LCM of 4x2y and 30 xy3
A. 30 x2y3 C. 60 x2y3
B. 30 x3y2 D. 60 x3y2
93. Solve for x: 4 (x – 1) -2 (x + 1) = 3x – 2
A. -4 C. 2
B. 4 D. -2
94. Factored form of x5 – x3 + x2 – 1
A. (x+1) (x-1) (x2-x+1) C. (x+1) (x-1)2 (x2-x+1)
B. (x+1)2 (x-1) (x2+x+1) D. (x+1)2 (x-1) (x2-x+1)

18. 95. Simplify 4√8 - 9√8 - 3√50
A. 34 √2 C. 18 √2
B. -34 √2 D. -18 √2
96. The sum of 2 consecutive numbers is 75. If x is the smaller number, what is the value of x.
A. 35 C. 38
B. 40 D. 37
97. The graph of linear equation is __________.
A. Curve C. Parabola
B. Vertical D. Line
98. The GCD of 18, 24 and 30
A. 6 C. 4
B. 8 D. 2
99. The coin is tossed 3 times. What is the probability that not all 3 tosses are the same?
A. ¼ C. 5/8
B. 3/8 D. 6/8
100. The tens digit of a certain two – digit number is 4 more than the unit’s digit, the sum of the squares of
the two digits is 26. Find the numbers.
A. 51 C. 45
B. 15 D. 54

19. KEY TO CORRECTION
Mathematics
1. C
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. A
6. D
7. D
8. C
9. A
10. A
11. D
12. B
13. C
14. B
15. D
16. B
17. C
18. A
19. D
20. A
21. C
22. B
23. A
24. B
25. D
26. B
27. A
28. D
29. C
30. B
31. B
32. C
33. A
34. C
35. C
36. C
37. C
38. D
39. D
40. B
41. B
42. A
43. A
44. A
45. B
46. B
47. D
48. B
49. D
50. B
51. D
52. C
53. C
54. D
55. A
56. A
57. B
58. B
59. D
60. A
61. D
62. C
63. C
64. D
65. B
66. A
67. D
68. A
69. B
70. B
71. D
72. C
73. A
74. D
75. A
76. B
77. D
78. B
79. C
80. B
81. D
82. A
83. D
84. B
85. C
86. D
87. A
88. B
89. A
90. C
91. D
92. C
93. A
94. D
95. B
96. D
97. D
98. A
99. D
100. A

20. FILIPINO
I. Piliin ang salitang kasingkahulugan ng salitang may salungguhit sa mga sumusunod na pangungusap.
1. Ang banghay na ginagawa niya ay may kahirapang gawin.
A. Buhay C. Plano
B. Balangkas D. Pangako
2. Ang panukalang inahing niya ay lubhang malalim at mahirap abutin.
A. Proyekto C. Mungkahi
B. Layon D. Hiling
3. Matapos ang maghapong gawain siya ay luggami na.
A. Lubog C. Nalungkot
B. Yumayaman D. Lupaypay
4. Ang mga nangyari sa kanya ay hampas lamang ng panahon.
A. Hataw C. Palo
B. Hagupit D. Sampal
5. Hindi ko sukat akalain na siya pala ay isang balakyot.
A. Marumi
B. Makasalanan
C. Mapanlinlang
D. Mabaho
6. Ang damuho ay may asawa pala.
A. Salbahe
B. Kabiyak
C. Tanga
D. Di-mapagkakatiwalaan
7. Ang magkaibigan ay may karatig pook lamang.
A. Kasama C. Kasing laki
B. Kasabihan D. Kalapit
8. Ang abrigo na ibinigay sa may kaarawan ay makulay.
A. Pamaypay C. Balabal
B. Tela D. Banig
9. Magalang na ipinakilala ng binate ang kanyang kasintahan sa kanyang ama.
A. Mapagmahal C. Mabait
B. Mapagmataas D. Mapitagan
10. Mahalaga ang dangal sa pamilya Formaran kaysa sa mga pansariling materyal na kagustuhan.
A. Puri
B. Bayani
C. Pagmamalaki
D. Kaugalian
II. Piliin ang mga salita na kasalungat ng salitang nakasalungguhit sa pahayag.
11. Naglaho ang mga panagarap ng ina sa kanyang anak ng ito ay mag-asawa.
A. Nawala
B. Lumitaw
C. Lumisan
D. Namatay
12. Maraming dukha na Filipino ang humingi ng tulong sa DSWD.
A. Nakakaawa C. Nakasimangot
B. Nakaririwasa D. Nakasisira
13. Masalimuot ang mga pangyayari sa pagkamatay ni Ramgen.
A. Magulo C. Maalalahanin
B. Makulay D. Mapayapa
14. Katunggali niya sa paligsahan ang kanyang matalik na kaibigan.
A. Kasamahan C. Kakampi

21. B. Katalik D. Kasulatan
15. Ang kanyang kapatid ay masintahin sa mga bata.
A. Masayahin C. Mapagmahal
B. Malupit D. Mapagmura
16. Ang dalangin ng mga Filipino sa taong 2012 ay magkakaroon ng kasaganahan sa buhay.
A. Kahirapan C. Kaperahan
B. Kasipagan D. Kayamanan
17. Ang pamilya Yulo ay may mababang-loob sa mga taong nangangailangan.
A. Maawain C. Matabil
B. Mapagpala D. Mayabang
18. Karamihan sa mga kabataan sa ngayon ay mga pasaway sa mga patakaran ng paaralan.
A. sumasama C. Palaangal
B. Palaaway D. Sumusunod
19. Maalyaw na buhay ang ibibigay ko sa aking mga anak.
A. Masarap C. Masagana
B. Mahirap D. Mahigpit
20. Malabay na punong-kahoy ang makikita sa bakuran ni Mang Baste.
A. Mataba C. Payat
B. Malusog D. Putol
III. Piliin ang tamang sagot sa bawat tanong.
21. Sila ay kabilang ______ sa mga inayayahan.
A. daw/din C. rin
B. din D. raw/rin
22. Nagbasa ______ maayos ang mag-aaral.
A. siya C. ng
B. nang D. sila
23. ______ iinumin ka bang gamot?
A. Mayroon C. May
B. Meron D. Nang
24. Ano ang kahulugan ______ iyong paliwanag.
A. nang C. din
B. ng D. rin
25. Ang mga regalong natira ay ______ Ayeng, Miguel at Joffrey.
A. para sa atin C. para sa iyo
B. para sa kanila D. para kina
26. Kilalanin ang salitang nakasalungguhit.
Siya ay karapat-dapat sa posisyong nakalaan.
A. Pang-uri C. Pangngalan
B. Pandiwa D. Pantukoy
27. Nahuli ng pulis ang magnanakaw ng bag.
A. Pang-uri C. Pandiwa
B. Pantukoy D. Pangngalan
28. Anong bahagi ng paglalahad ito?

22. “iba na talaga ang yumayaman”, sabi ng kausap” hindi naman, ang tagay ay nakapagpahanda
lang para sa pagtanda” sagot ni Ka Erning.
A. Isang sipi
B. Isang salitaan
C. Isang pangungusap na humihikayat
D. Isang katanungan
29. Anong uri ng tayutay ito?
Dumadagudong ang tunog ng loud speaker sa mahinang dibdib ng matanda.
A. Onomatopeya o paghihimig
B. Apostrophe o pagtutulad
C. Alliteration o pag-uulit
D. Antithesis o pagtatambis
30. Hindi ko sinasabi na ayaw ko sa kanya pero suklam na suklam ako sa kanya.
A. Litotes o pagtanggi
B. Tanong Retorikal
C. Metaphor o pagwawangis
D. Sinekdoke o pagpapalit-saklaw
31. Ang mukha niya’y animo’y maamong tupa na sunudsunuran.
A. Metaphor o pagwawangis C. Metonomi o pagpapalit tawag
B. Simile o pagtutulad D. Epigram o pagsalungat
32. Ang paalala ay gamot sa taong nakakalimot.
A. Simile o pagtutulad C. Hyperbole o pagmamalabis
B. Personification o pagtatao D. Metaphor o pagwawangis
33. Sumisipol ang hanging amihan.
A. Sinekdoke o pagmamalabis
B. Irony o pag-uyam
C. Metonomy o pagpapapalit-tawag
D. Personification o pagtatao
34. Alin ang kasingkahulugan ng pariralang nagbibilang ng poste?
A. mahusay magbilang
B. mahusay magtrabaho
C. walang poste
D. walang trabaho
35. Alin ang kasingkahulugan ng pariralang buwaya sa katihan?
A. mapang-api
B. mapang-imbot
C. mapanukso
D. mapagmalabis
36. Ano ang pokus ng pandiwa sa pangungusap na ito?
IPANGSULAT MO ANG LAPIS NA MAY TASA
A. tagaganap C. sanhi
B. tagatanggap D. gamit
37. Ang mga mata ng may matataas na tungkulin ay maagap sa pagbibigay ng ulat.
A. gamit sa paningin C. espiya
B. maganda D. matitikas
38. Anong teorya sa wika ang tinutukoy?
Ang tao’y nakalilikha ng tunog kapag siya’y nageeksert ng pwersa.
A. teoryang pooh-pooh
B. teoryang bow-wow
C. teoryang ta-ta
D. teoryang yo-he-ho
39. Ang isang taong napapabulalas sa sakit ay maaaring napapa-aray! O napapa-ouch!
A. teoryang ding-dong
B. teoryang bow-wow
C. teoryang pooh-pooh
D. teoryang ta-ra-ra-boom – de-ay
40. Ang alpabeto ng ating mga ninuno noong panahong pre-kolonyal ay tinatawag na
A. alibata C. talibaba

23. B. Alibaba D. abakada
41. Ayon sa Bagong Saligang Batas (1987), ang Wikang Pambansa ng Pilipinas ay tatawaging
A. Pilifino C. Pilipino
B. Filipino D. Filifino
42. Kapag tayo ay nabigo, bumangon tayo agad. Sakaling dumating ang daluyong, sandali siyang iiwas.
A. Payak
B. Tambalan
C. Hugnayan
D. Langkapan
43. Ang mga mag-aaral ng Nolasco High School ay nagsasayawan at nag-aawitan.
A. Payak
B. Tambalan
C. Hugnayan
D. Langkapan
44. Nagtapos nang may karangalan si Ryan dahil nagsikap siya sa kanyang pag-aaral.
A. Payak
B. Tambalan
C. Hugnayan
D. Langkapan
45. Alin sa mga pangungusap ang higit na epektibong pagpapahayag?
A. Nang nailikas ang mga tao ay bumaha sa aming bayan.
B. Nang bumaha sa aming bayan ay nailikas na ang mga tao.
C. Nang lumikas ang mga tao ay bumaha sa aming bayan.
D. Pagkalikas sa mga tao ay bumaha sa aming bayan.
46. Nakalulungkot isipin na pagkatapos ng ating pagsusumikap ay patuloy pa ring nawawasak ang ating
kapaligiran. Sa pangungusap na ito anong salita ang naghuhudyat ng pagkakasunod-sunod?
A. pagkatapos
B. nakakalungkot
C. pagsusumikap
D. patuloy
47. Ano ang nagaganap na pagbabagong morpoponemiko sa salitang may salungguhit?
Nasa mesa ang mga kagamitan sa panlinis.
A. pagkakaltas
B. asimilasyon
C. metatisis
D. reduplikasyon
48. Marumi ang kamay niya nang kumain.
A. pagpapalit ponema
B. paglilipat diin
C. asimilsayon
D. metatesis
49. Asnan mo ang binili kong isda.
A. pagkakaltas ng ponema
B. paglilipat diin
C. asimilasyon
D. metatesis
50. Aptan mo ang nasirang bubong.
A. Metatesis
B. pagkakaltas ng ponema
C. paglilipat diin
D. pagpapalit ponema
51. Kapag sinasabing “Itaga mo sa bato ang aking pangako” siya ay
A. Natutuwa sa kanyang pangako
B. Nakataga ng pangako sa bato
C. Nagsasabi ng totoo
D. Nanganggako ng pagtupad sa pangako
52. Ano ang ibig sabihin nito “wika ang kaluluwa ng isang lahi”
A. Ang wika ay kaluluwa ng isang lahi dahil naitatala nito ng kasaysayan
B. Ang wika ay may damdamin
C. Ang wika ay nakapagpapahayag ng niloloob ng tao
D. Ang tao at wika ay kapwa may kaluluwa.
53. Anong hulwaran ng organisasyon ito?
Tumaas ang presyo ng lahat ng bilihin ngayong taon. Dahil kasi ito sa pagtaas ng dagdag na
buwis na ipinataw ng pamahalaan sa lahat ng mga bilihin.

24. A. Paghahambing at pagkokontrast
B. Problema at solusyon
C. Sanhi at bunga
D. Enumerasyon
54. Sina Nora Aunor at Vilma Santos ay kapwa mahuhusay na artista. Taglay nila ang kahusayan sa pag-
arte, halos lahat ng kanilang pelikula ay nabigay sa kanila ng acting awards. Si Nora ay tinaguriang
“Superstar” at si Vilma naman ay tinaguriang “Star for all seasons”. Bagamat pareho silang sikat na
artista, si Nora ay mahusay rin na mang-aawit at si Vilma ngayon ay mahusay na pulitiko.
A. Problema at solusyon
B. Depinisyon
C. Order o pagkakasunud-sunod
D. Paghahamibing at pagkokontrast
E.
55. Ang gitara ay isang uri ng instrumenting pangmusika na nahahanay o nauuri sa string. Upang
tumunog ang instrumentong ito ay kailangang mo itong kalabitin ng kanang kamay at titipahin naman ng
kaliwang kamay.
A. Paghahambing at pagkokontrast
B. Sanhi at bunga
C. Depinisyon
D. Enumerasyon
56. Ang isang set ng kompyuter ay binubuo ng mga sumusunod: CPU, monitor, mouse, key board at avr.
Ang opsyunal na bahagi nito ay printer at scanner. Ibig sabihin, maaaring wala ang mga kagamitang ito.
A. Enumerasyon C. Sanhi at bunga
B. Depinisyon D. Order
Basahin ang Teksto sa ibaba at sagutan ang mga kasunod na aytem.
Mag-isip ka, Binata
Ikaw ay baguntao… malakas, makisig, matatag, maginoo, ikaw, tulad, ng iyong ama ay magiging
haligi ng tahanan.
Huwaran mo ang iyong ama. Siya ang utak na namamatnugot sa inyong tahanan samantalang
ang iyong ina ang siyang katuwang sa pagpapaligaya nito. Ikaw ay galamay ng iyong mga magulang.
Ikaw ang pag-asa nila sa kanilang pagtanda. Ikaw ang dahilan ng kanilang pagkakasakit. Dapat mong
gantihan ng kabutihan ang kanilang paghihirap.
Ngayon nag-aaral ka pa’y maaari kang tumulong sa anu mang paraan. Ngunit ang higit nilang
inaasahan sa iyo ay ang pagtatapos mo ng pag-aaral. Para kanino ang iyong pag-aaral? Ito’y para sa
iyong kinabukasan, upang ikaw ay maging matatag at nakahandang tumanggap ng pananagutan. Kaya
dapat mong ibigin at igalang ang iyong mga magulang. Tungkulin mong paglingkuran sila nang buong
lugod at kasiyahan. Huwag mo silang biguin sa pangarap nila sa iyo!
57. Ang pananaw na ginamit sa teksto ay _________________.
A. Unang panahunan
B. Ikalawang panahunan
C. Ikatlong panahunan
D. Wala ginamit
58. Ang tono ng teksto ay _________________.
A. Mapangutya C. Mapanghikayat
B. Mapagbiro D. Mapanumbat
59. Sa pamagat ng teksto ay mahihinuhang _________________.
A. Ang teksto ay nangangaral sa mga binata
B. Ang teksto ay nagbababala sa mga binata
C. Ang teksto ay isang pagsusulit para sa mga binata.
D. Ang teksto ay isang pagtawag sa atensyon para sa mga binata.
60. Ang ikalawang talata ng teksto ay gumagamit ng hulwarang _________________.
A. Depinisyon
B. Paghahambing at pagkokontrast
C. Problema at solusyon
D. Enumerasyon
61. Anong uri ng tayutay ang napapaloob sa pahayag na ito?
NALIGO NA SA HAMOG NG GABI ANG MGA BULAKLAK
A. pagmamalabis
B. pag-uuyam
C. pagpapalit-tawag
D. pagsasatao

25. 62. Ano ang tawag sa kabuhuan ng mga katangian sa pagsasalita ng tao?
A. register C. sosyolek
B. idyolek D. mode
63. Ang mga sumusunod na bokabularyo gaya na court, pleading at exhibit tinatawag na _______.
A. Sosyolek C. Jargon
B. Dayalek D. Idyolek
64. Anong uri ng tayutay ang napapaloob sa pahayag na ito?
Musika ang gamot sa nalulungkot niyang damdamin
A. Pagsasatao C. Pag-uyam
B. Pagpapalit-tawag D. Pagwawangis
65. Anong uri ng tayutay ang napapaloob sa pahayag na ito?
Maliliit na palad ang nagungal ng bukirin
A. Pagpapalit-saklaw
B. Pagpapalit-tawag
C. Pagtutulad
D. Pagsasatao
66. Ang pagkilala ng kahulugan ng salita sa pamamagitan ng pagkuha ng salitang sa pamamagitan ng
pagkuha ng salitang ugat o panlapi ay nasa paraang __________.
A. pagsusuring istruktural
B. paggamit ng context clues
C. paggamit ng diksyunaryo
D. paggamit ng matatalinhagang pananlita
67. Ang kasiphayuan-kaligayahan ay isang halimbawa ng __________.
A. pagkakatulad
B. pagsasalungatan
C. pagbibigay ng katangian
D. pagbubuo
68. Ang pagpuna sa wastong pagkakasunud-sunod ng mga pangyayari as nasa dimensyong
___________.
A. pag-unawang literal
B. pagkaunawang ganap sa mga kaisipan ng may-akda
C. paglikha ng sariling kaisipan
D. pagsasanib ng mga kaisipang nabasa at mga karanasan
69. Ang isang halimbawa ng dimension sa paglikha ng sariling kaisipan ayon sa mga kasanayan at
kawilihan sa binasang seleksyon ay ang ____________.
A. pagdama sa katangian ng tauhan
B. pag-unawa sa mga impresyon o kakintalang nadarama.
C. pagbubuod o paglalagom sa binasa
D. paglikha ng sariling kwento batay sa binasa
70. Sa pagbasa, ang kakayahan sa pagsasama-sama at pa-uugnay-ugnay ng mga nakaraan at ng mga
bagong karanasan ay tinatawag na ___________.
A. persepsyon o pagkilala C. paghawan ng balakid
B. pag-unawa D. asimilasyon
71. Upang matamo ang mahahalagang layunin sa maunlad na pagabasa, kailangan ang ____________.
A. kritikal na pag-iisip at
pagpapahalaga
B. imahinasyon
C. pagkilala sa kahinaan
D. interes at hilig ng bumabasa
72. Upang matiyak kung paano magkakaroon ng interaksyon ang nauunang kaalaman at karanasang
pangkapaligiran na kaugnay sa binasa ang layunin ng teoryang ___________.
A. panimulang pagbasa
B. pinatnubayang pagbasa
C. schema
D. semantic webbing
73. Sa pagtuturo ng pagbasa sa pangalawang wika, dapat isaalang-alang ____________.

26. A. ang simulain ng pagkakasunud-sunod ng mga yunit ng paksang aralin
B. ang pagtatala ng mahahalagang bahagi ng araling sasaklawin
C. ang bawat bahagi ng balarila
D. ang pagsasanay na transisyon
74. Sa saknong na ito, ang mga tunog na may salungguhit ay isang halimbawa ng ____________.
A. aliterasyon C. asonansya
B. tugma D. onomatopeya
75. Pinag-aaralan naming si Efren Abueg. Ang pangungusap na ito’y isang halimbawa ng
_____________.
A. eksaherasyon o hyperbole
B. pagpapalit-tawag o metonomiya
C. pagwawangis o metapora
D. patulad o simile
“Kung tatanawin mo sa malayang pook Ako’y tila isang nakadipang krus.”
(Halaw sa “ISANG PUNONGKAHOY” ni Jose Corazon De Jesus)
76. Ang taludtod sa itaas ay ___________.
A. patulad (simile) C. patalinhaga (allegory)
B. pahalintulad (analogy) D. padiwangtao (personification)
Siya’t tanging siya ang paru-parong gubat
Mandi’y isang tinik sa lipon ng rosas”
77. Ang taludtod sa itaas ay ___________.
A. padiwang tao C. patalinhaga
B. patulad D. pahalintulad
“Ang mga kamay ko’y martilyo’t sandatang pambuo’t panggiba ng anumang pita”
78. Ang taludtod sa itaas ay ___________.
A. patulad C. pawangis
B. pahintulad D. patalinhaga
79. Ang proseso ng paggamit sa Filipino sa iba’t ibang disiplinang siyentifiko at teknikal ay tinatawag na
___________.
A. Istandardisasyon C. Bilinggualismo
B. Intelektwalisasyon D. Lingua-franca
80. Ang wikang ginagamit sa isang particular na lugar ay tinatawag na ___________.
A. Wikang Pambansa C. Lingua-franca
B. Wikang Ofisyal D. Unang Wika
81. Ang sarsuwelang higit na kaugnay ng pangalang Severino Reyes ay ____________.
A. Dalagang Bukid
B. R.I.P.
C. Walang Sugat
D. Minda Nora
82. Ang pinakatanyag sa dulang isinulat ni Julian Cruz Balmaceda ay ang ____________.
A. Sa Bunganga ng Patnig
B. Ang Piso ni Anita
C. Isang Kualtang Abaka
D. Dahil sa Anak
83. Ang kalipunan ng mga tula mula kina Huseng Sisiw at Balagtas hanggang sa makabagong makata ay
ipinalimbag ni Alejandro G. Abadilla ay ang ____________.
A. Buhay at Iba pang Tula
B. Tanagabadilla
C. Ako ang Daigdig
D. Parnasong Tagalog
84. Si Jose Corazon De Jesus, ang pangunahing makatang liriko ng panulaang Tagalog ay lalong kilala
sa tawag na ____________________.

27. A. Huseng Sisiw
B. Batukaling
C. Huseng Batute
D. Taga-ilog
85. Ang awit na ito ay tinatawag _________.
A. Oyay
B. Tikam
C. Soliranin
D. Kundiman
Palay siyang matino
Nang Humangi’y yumuko
Ngunit muling tumayo
Nagkabunga ng ginto
(Halaw sa “Palay” ni Ildefonso Santos)
86. Anong uri ito ng tula?
A. Elehiya C. Oda
B. Soneto D. Tanaga
Sa mata’y dilim
At hindi pa liwanag
Ang tumatabing
87. Anong uri ito ng tula?
A. Pantun C. Tanaga
B. Haiku D. May sukat at tugma
At buhat noon, tinawag na Banahaw ang malaking bundok na yaon sa gitna ng Luzon.
Gayon din ang bayan ng Lukban at Tayabas na nagmula sa pangalang
Bayabas at Lukban, na ang mga magulang ni Limbas.
88. Ang talata sa itaas ay wakas ng isang _________.
A. Alamat C. Kuwentong bayan
B. Pabula D. Mitolohiya
89. Alin sa mga ito ang karaniwang nasasaksihan sa paglalamay sa patay at paglisahan sa
pangangatwiran sa paraang patula?
A. Duplo C. Juego de prenda
B. Karagatan D. Balagtasan
90. Alin sa mga maikling kwentong ito ang unang nagwagi ng Carlos Palanca Memorial Awards
A. Mabangis na Lungsod C. Kwentong ni Mabuti
B. Sampaguitang walang bango D. Lihim ng isang pulo
91. Ang dulang ito ay itinuturing na drama simboliko noong 1903.
A. Nene at Neneng
B. Sampaguitang walang bango
C. Kahapon, Ngayon at Bukas
D. Lihim ng isang pulo
92. Sa tulang ito pinahalagahan ni Jose Rizal ang mga kabataang Pilipino.
A. Sa Aking mga Kababata B. Mi Ultimo Adios

28. C. Filipino Dentro de Cien anos D. Ala Juventud Filipino
93. Ano ang anyo ng salitang may salungguhit sa, “Ang magtanim ng hangin, bagyo ang aanihin.”
A. Pandiwa
B. Pawatas
C. Pangangalan
D. Pang-abay
94. Ano ang pokus ng pandiwang nagluluto?
A. Layon
B. Tagaganap
C. Tagatanggap
D. Sanhi
95. Sa ________ ng gabi gaganapin ang pulong sa mga manunulat.
A. Ika-walo
B. Ika-8
C. Ika 8
D. Ikawalo
96. Kunin mo ang walis at ______ at maglilinis ako.
A. Pangdakot C. Pamdakot
B. Pandakot D. Pang-dakot
97. Ang isang maliit na pangkat ng formal o makabuluhang katangian na nauugnay sa partikular na uri ng
katangiang sosyo-sitwasyonal.
A. Idyolek C. mode
B. varayti D. rehistro
Basahin at Sagutin ang mga sumusunod.
I. Ang Philosopher na si Conficius ay naniniwala rin sa malaking tulong ng tsaa sa kalusugan.
II. Taglay ng kape ang tinatawag na Cancer Fighting Polyphenosis. Nakatutulong din ang kape laban
sa migraine, parkinson’s disease, colon cancer, asthma gayundin ang mga problemang may
kinalaman sa atay, apdo at puso.
III. Gaya ng kape, mabisang panlaban din sa cancer ang tsaa lalo na ang green tea. Marami ng
nagpatunay na pangunahing inuming pangkalusugan ang tsaa sa mga bansang China, Japan at
Korea. Mabisang panlinis ng bituka ang tsaa at malaking tulong sa pagtunaw ng pagkain at saka
isa rin itong anti-oxidant.
IV. Taglay din ng kape ang “tannin” isang anti-oxidant na mabisa sa kalusugan ng puso at atay. Ito ang
pumupuksa sa cirrhosis at maging sa mga bad cholesterol.
98. Aling pangungusap ang angkop na pagpapahayag ng pagtanggap tungkol sa isyu ng tekstong
binasa?
A. May alinlangan na ang kape at tsaa ay epektibong panlaban sa mga sakit.
B. Subalit maraming Pilipino and di umiinom ng kape at tsaa
C. Marahil kailangan pa ang masusing pag-aaral dulot ng kape at tsaa sa ating katawan.
D. Tunay na mabisang panlaban sa kanser ang kape dahil sa ito ay Cancer Fighting
Polyphenosis
99. Anong himig o tono ang ipinahihiwatig sa talata I?
A. Nagpapaliwanag sa pakinabang ng kape sa ating katawan.
B. Nanghihikayat para sa malaking produksyon ng kape
C. Nangangaral sa dapat na inuming babagay sa katawan.
D. Naglalarawan ng tamang pangangalaga ng kape.
100. Ano ang tiyak na layon ng teksto?
A. Ipatalastas na ang kape at tsaa ay mahusay sa maraming sakit.
B. Ipabatid ang buting dulot ng kape at tsaa sa katawan ng tao.
C. Ipaliwanag na ang kape at tsaaay sa murang halaga nabibili.
D. Ipaalam na ayon sa pananaliksik ang kape at tsaa ay nakakagamot ng kanser.

29. KEY TO CORRECTION
Filipino
1. C
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. A
7. D
8. C
9. D
10. A
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. C
15. B
16. A
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. C
21. C
22. B
23. C
24. B
25. D
26. B
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. A
31. B
32. D
33. D
34. D
35. B
36. D
37. C
38. D
39. C
40. A
41. B
42. C
43. A
44. B
45. B
46. D
47. B
48. A
49. A
50. A
51. D
52. C
53. C
54. D
55. C
56. A
57. B
58. C
59. B
60. C
61. D
62. B
63. C
64. B
65. A
66. A
67. B
68. B
69. D
70. D
71. A
72. C
73. A
74. A
75. B
76. A
77. A
78. A
79. B
80. C
81. C
82. D
83. D
84. C
85. C
86. D
87. B
88. A
89. A
90. C
91. C
92. D
93. A
94. B
95. B
96. B
97. B
98. C
99. A
100. B

30. SOCIAL SCIENCE
1. What values is being promoted by the Philippine Government when it launced the “Juan Time” project
in 2011?
A. Punctuality C. Palabra De Honor
B. Austerity D. Close family ties
2. A UNESCO World heritage Site in Ilocos Norte.
A. Bangui windmills C. Currimao Rock Formations
B. Paoay church D. Pagudpod
3. An international convention where the Philippine can validate its claim to the Spartlys and other
territories in the West Philippine Sea.
A. United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (Unclos)
B. Geneva Convention
C. Rio de Janeiro Convention
D. Kyoto Protocol
4. The author of “Flora de Filipinas” circa 1837, the botanical illustrations of plant specimens that grew
into the Philippines herbarium.
A. Gov. Polavieja C. Currimao Rock Formations
B. Padre Emmanuel Gonzales D. Gov. Narciso Claveria
5. The Philippines was ruled by Spain through __________ until 1814.
A. Cuba C. Viceroy of Mexico
B. Puerto Rico D. Guam
6. This is a guarantee given by the Constitution to certain units of government where their approved
annual appropriations shall be autotimatically an regularly released.
A. General Appropriations Act
B. Fiscal Autonomy
C. Fiscal Discipline
D. Internal Revenue Allocations
7. Which order of governments correctly applies during the American regime?
A. Civil, Military, Commonwealth
B. Military, Civil, Commonwealth
C. Civil, Commonwealth, Military
D. Military, Commonwealth, Civil
8. Which order of presidents correctly applies to Philippine history?
I. Carlos P. Garcia
II. Diosdado Macapagal
III. Manuel Roxas
IV. Ferdinand Marcos
A. III, I, II, IV
B. IV, II, I, III
C. I, II, III, IV
D. IV, III, II, I
9. In whose presidency was the famous MIRACLE RICE produced?
A. Ferdinand Marcos C. Erap Estrada
B. Fidel Ramos D. Sergio Osmeña
10. The municipal mayor is for today while _____ was during the Spanish period.
A. Alcade mayor
B. Cabeza de Barangay
C. Gobernadorcillo
D. Gobernador General
11. Respect for parents is shown in various ways by different groups of people in different places.
A. Cultural relativism
B. Ethical relativism
C. Ethnocentrism
D. Xenophobia
12. If you keep seeing your ways of doing things as the right way and everybody else’s as the wrong way,
you tend to have the attitude called
A. Cultural relativism B. Ethical relativism

31. C. Ethnocentrism D. Xenophobia
13. After the Second World War, which emerged as new powers?
A. People’s Republic of China and United States of America
B. South Korea and Soviet Union
C. Germany and Soviet Union
D. United States of America and Soviet Union
14. Legislation granting special priveleges to senior citizens help to neutralize prejudice and
discrimination toward a social category based on:
A. Age
B. Ethnicity
C. Gender
D. Race
15. Giving “abuloy” to a bereaved family, an act of hospitality and the “bayanihan spirit” prove which
Filipino trait.
A. Adaptability
B. Religiosity
C. Hard work and perseverance
D. Pakikipag kapwa TAO
16. Which was the most important accomplishment of Aguinaldo’s dictatorial government?
A. Separation of church and state
B. Abolition of polo y servicio personal (forced labor)
C. Treaty of Paris
D. Proclamation of Philippine Independence on June 12, 1898
17. The employees of MET review center want to associate, pool their savings, and use the fund as soon
as possible to grant loans to members and capitalized and operate the canteen of the said revie center.
What type of cooperative will they organize and register?
A. Service cooperative
B. Producer’s cooperative
C. Consumer cooperative
D. Credit cooperative
18. The basic principle of taxation where the sources of funds or revenues should be sufficient to meet
the needs of public expenditure.
A. Basic adequacy C. Equity
B. Equality D. Administrative feasibility
19. One of the types of positive economics that collects and presents data that can describe the
phenomena.
A. Descriptive economics C. Growth
B. Economic theory D. Stability
20. The complex set of relationships with in the agricultural secotr and between tenure structure,
production structure, and the structure of supporting services.
A. Land reform
B. Agrarian structure
C. Comprehensive Agrarian Reform
Law
D. Agrarian reform measures
21. The earliest mode of economic life in human history according to Karl Marx.
A. Enlightened self-interest
B. Reciprocity
C. Primitive communism
D. Agricultural
22. The process in which members of one cultural group adopt the beliefs and behaviors of another
group.
A. Acculturation
B. Enculturation
C. Assimilation
D. Cultural relativism
23. The adoption of the behavior patterns of the surrounding culture; “the socialization of children to the
norms of their culture.”
A. Acculturation
B. Enculturation
C. Assimilation
D. Cultural relativism
24. What is the power of the State to take property for public use with “just compensation?”
A. Taxation B. Eminent Domain

32. C. Judicial review D. Police Power
25. It refers to the full and fair equivalent of the property taken from its owner by the expropriator, and the
guage for computation is not the taker’s gain but the owner’s loss. In order for the payment to be “just,” it
must be real, substantial, full, and ample; made within a reasonable time from the taking of the property.
A. Property
B. Public use
C. Eminent domain
D. Just compensation
26. This can be identified with public purpose, public interest and public convenience.
A. Property C. Eminent Domain
B. Public use D. Just compensation
27. The complete name of Dr. Jose Rizal.
A. Jose Protacio Rizal Mercado y Alonzo Realonda
B. Jose Protacio Rizal
C. Jose Rizal y Protacio
D. Jose Rizal y Mercado
28. Rizal’s famous sculptural work was ________________, a clay sculpture of a naked young woman
with overflowing hair, standing on a skull while bearing a torch held high.
A. La Spolarium
B. Sa Aking mga Kababata
C. Mi Ultimo Adios
D. The triump of Science over Death
29. Northeast Luzon. The longest river in the country, originates from the mountains of Quirino and Nueva
Vizcaya and drains the whole Cagayan Valley exiting through the town of Aparri and Cagayan.
A. Agno river C. Pampanga river
B. Abra river D. Rio Grande de Cagayan
30. _______________ anthropology, focuses on the study of human population using an evolutionary
framework.
A. Biological and Physical Anthropolgy
B. Cultural Anthropology
C. Human Anthropolgy
D. Linguistic Anthorpology
31. He coined the term “survival of the fittest”
A. Auguste Comte
B. Karl Marx
C. Herbert Spencer
D. Arnold Toynbee
32. Who said this phrase: “There are no tyrants where there are no slaves.?
A. Jose Rizal
B. Apolinario Mabini
C. Gregorio del Pilar
D. Graciano Lopez Jaena
33. The 1987 Constitution created a body with the power to confirm major appointments of the president.
What is this body called?
A. Commission on Appointments
B. Blue Ribbon Committee
C. Civil Service Commission
D. Electoral Tribunal
“The President shall nominate and, with the consent of the Commission on Appointments,
appoint the heads of the executive departments, ambassadors, other public ministers and consuls, or
officers of the armed forces from the rank of colonel or naval captiain, and other officers whse
appointments are vested in him in this constitution. He shall also appoint all other officers of the
Government whose appointments are not otherwise provided for by law, and those whom he may be
authorized by law to appoint. The congress may, by law, vest the appointment of other officers lower in
rank in the President alone, in the courts, or in the heads of departments, agencies, commissions, or
boards.
34. The legislative power shall be vested in the Congress of the Philippines which shall consist of
______________ except to the extent reserved to the people by the provision on initiative and
referendum.
A. Senate and House of Representatives
B. Senate

33. C. House of Representatives
D. Malacañang
35. The State recognizes the Filipino _________ as the foundation of the nation. Accordingly, it shall
strengthen its solidarity and actively promote its total development.
A. Family C. Church
B. Barangay D. School
36. The “La liga Filipina” was A CONCRETE EVIDENCE OF Rizal’s desire for: __________
I. Unite the entire Philippine archipelago
II. Fight violence and injustice
III. Revolt against the Spaniards
A. I and II C. I and IV
B. II and III D. I and III
37. What is mean by SONA?
A. Speech Of Noynoy Aquino
B. Speech Of the Nation Address
C. State of the Nation Address
D. Status of the Nation Assembly
38. The people of this country shows courtesy by living their footwears on the stairs.
A. Italians C. Americans
B. Japanese D. Koreans
39. Pro-environment people believe that _____________________.
A. Opening dumping sites will solve problems in waste disposal
B. Burning plastic will ease the clogging of water canals.
C. Classifying of garbage identifies biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste.
D. Burning of garbage is the best approach
40. Violators of RA 9165 are positive with the use and trafficking of ____________ and sentenced to
lethal injection before the lifting of death penalty for the heinous crimes.
A. Antibiotics C. Marijuana
B. Sleeping pills D. Shabu
41. The Philippine National Bank has used an icon for its advertisement. It is ____________.
A. Pigeon
B. Hawk
C. Eagle
D. Parrot
42. No country will experience economic progress unless it is part of a world organization. What
international organization this saying is true?
A. UNESCO
B. NATO
C. WHO
D. GATT
43. ________________ refers to a group with common aspirations.
A. Ethnic groups C. Aborgines
B. Natives D. Norms
44. The way of the Arabian dignitaries to greet a friend.
A. Hand grip C. Kiss
B. Embrace D. Hand shake
45. It refers to the rightness and wrongness of our decisions.
A. Morality C. Philosophy
B. Theology D. Values
Values exert major influence on the behavior of an individual and serve as broad guidelines
in all situations.
46. Jose Rizal faced the firing squad in Bagumbayan de Luneta on December 30, 1896. This is a genuine
manifestation of Rizal’s strong sense of ____________.

34. A. Honesty C. Patriotism
B. Fidelity D. Loyalty
47. The Philippine ten-year transition period before the granting of complete independence from the
Americans.
A. Commonwealth Government
B. Third Republic
C. Puppet Government
D. Revolutionary
48. The first appointed head of the Department of Education during Commonwealth period.
A. Claro M. Recto
B. Sergio Osmena
C. Rafael Palma
D. Jose P. Laurel
49. The “father of social justice.”
A. Claro M. Recto
B. Sergio Osmena
C. Manuel L. Quezon
D. Jose P. Laurel
50. The leader of Sakdalista uprising
A. Benigno Aquino C. Isabelo delos Reyes
B. Benigno Ramos D. Isabelle Espiritu
51. The Rizal Day Celebration reminds us about heroes worth
A. appreciating
B. reading about
C. emulating
D. studying
52. SECTION 3, Article XIV states that “ALL educational institutions shall include the study of
___________________ as part of curriculum.”
A. History
B. Science and Technology
C. Sports
D. Constitution
53. Who has the power to declare the existence of the state of war?
A. Senate President
B. Chief Justice
C. President
D. Congress
54. “The states shall protect and promote the right of all citizens to equality education at all levels.” Which
government program support of this?
A. Exclusion of children with special needs from the formal system.
B. Free elementary and secondary education.
C. Deregulated tuition fee hike
D. Re-introduction of the NEAT and NSAT.
55. The old name of EDSA during early part of American occupation
A. 19 de Junio C. Highway 53
B. Highway 54 D. Highway 52
56. RA 9155 also known as “___________________.”
A. Basic Education Act of 2001
B. Restructured Basic Education
C. Education for All
D. Bridge Program
57. RA 4670 also known as “__________________.”
A. Board of Higher Education
B. The Magna Carta for Public School
Teachers
C. State of National Emergency
D. Calibrated Pre-emptive Response
58. How long can an elected President of the Philippines serve under the 1987 Constitution.
A. two terms, 6 years each
B. two terms, 4 years each
C. one term for 6 years
D. one term for 4 years
59. Historically, Why does the Philippines have claim over Sabah?
A. The sultan of Sulu, who received the territory as a gift, has given the Philippine Government
power to reclaim his territory.
B. The Malays, the third wave of migrants to the country, own the territory.
C. Sabah was formerly a part of the Philippine archiepelago
D. The Philippine government bought it from the Sultan of Brunei.

35. 60. Which of the following describes the Battle of Manila Bay between American and Spanish naval
forces?
A. The Americans ships outnumbered those of the Spaniards.
B. The Spaniards readily won the battle over the Americans.
C. It was a mock naval battle between the Spaniards and the Americans.
D. The Americans won the battle with great difficulty.
61. Who was the first president of the Republic of the Philippines when independence from America was
granted on July 4, 1946??
A. Pres. Corazon Aquino C. Pres. Ferdinand Marcos
B. Pres. Elipidio Quirino D. Pres. Manuel Roxas
62. According to him “…this Nation will be great again…!”
A. Pres. Benigno Simeon Cuangco Aquino III
B. Pres. Elpidio Quirino
C. Pres. Ferdinand Marcos
D. Pres. Manuel Roxas
63. He had promised sweeping economic changes, and he did make progress in land reform, opening
new settlements outside crowded Luzon island. His death in an airplane crash in March 1957, was a
serious blow to national morale.
A. Pres. Ramon Magsaysay
B. Pres. Elpidio Quirino
C. Pres. Ferdinand Marcos
D. Pres. Manuel Roxas
64. What is Republic Act 8049?
A. Anti – hazing Law
B. Anti sexual harassment Law
C. Law Protecting Women and Children against all forms of abuses, and exploitation
D. Expanded Senior Citizen Act of 2010.
65. What is Republic Act 9994?
A. Anti-hazing Law
B. Anti sexual harassment Law
C. Law Protecting Women and Children against all forms of abuses, and exploitation
D. Expanded Senior Citizen Act of 2010
66. Republic Act 9262 adheres with
A. Anti-hazing Law
B. Anti sexual harassment Law
C. Law Protecting Women and Children against all forms of abuses, and exploitation
D. Expanded Senior Citizen Act of 2010
67. Republic Act 7877 also known as
A. Anti-hazing Law
B. Anti sexual harassment Law
C. Law Protecting Women and Children against all forms of abuses, and exploitation
D. Expanded Senior Citizen Act of 2010
68. With peace education in mind, what is NOT included:
A. Dialogue
B. Meditation
C. Cooperation
D. Conflict
69. The first essay of Rizal
A. El Armor Patrio C. Sa Aking Kababata
B. A La Juventud Filipina D. Mi Ultimo Adios
70. The Republic Act that requires us to teach Rizal and other Filipino patriots to tertiary students.
A. RA 7836 C. RA 1425
B. RA 7610 D. RA 9165

36. 71. What is the Right of SUFFRAGE advocates?
A. The right of the people to vote
B. The right of the people to vote and be elected in public office
C. The right of the people not to vote
D. The right of the people for clean elections
72. Known as the “Islas de Pintados” by the Spaniards.
A. Luzon C. Mindanao
B. Visayas D. Isla Verde
73. Man’s conviction is his/her ________.
A. Norms C. Values
B. Belief D. Mores
74. Known as Ma-i by the early Chinese traders.
A. Mindoro C. Cebu
B. Aklan D. Manila
75. The longest revolt in Philippine History
A. Dahogoy revolt
B. Diego Silang revolt
C. Gabriela Silang revolt
D. Palaris revolt
76. What was our government under the 1935 Constitution.
A. Revolutionary
B. Monarchy
C. Commonwealth
D. Military
77. What is meant by the worker’s right to security of tenure?
I. To continue in their jobs.
II. Not to be contractual after six months
III. May not be dismissed unless there is just or valid cause provide by law
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I and III
78. The process by which a person learns the requirements of the culture by which he or she is
surrounded, and acquires values and behaviours that are appropriate or necessary in that culture.
A. Assimilation
B. Enculturation
C. Cultural relativism
D. Acculturation
79. The exchange of cultural features that results when groups of individuals having different cultures
come into continuous first hand contact; the original cultural patterns of either or both groups may be
altered, but the groups remain distinct.
A. Assimilation
B. Enculturation
C. Cultural relativism
D. Acculturation
80. The process whereby a minority group gradually adapts to the customs and attitudes of the prevailing
culture and customs.
A. Assimilation
B. Enculturation
C. Cultural relativism
D. Acculturation
81. The principle that an individual human’s beliefs and activities should be understood in terms of his or
her own culture.
A. Assimilation
B. Enculturation
C. Cultural relativism
D. Acculturation
82. In economics, _________ is a rise in the general level of prices of goods and services in an economy
over a period of time.
A. Inflation
B. mercantilism
C. depression
D. free trade

37. 83. What event in history followed when the Katipunan movement was discovered?
A. Philippine revolution/Cry of Pugad Lawin
B. Treaty of Paris 1898
C. Execution of Rizal
D. Capture of Aguinaldo
84. Are traditional courtship songs in the Mexican-Spanish tradition based on the habanera rhythm
A. Harana
B. Kundiman
C. Jazz
D. Modern
85. The distinct components of music for both Japanese traditional and modern music.
A. Carnatic and Hindustani music
B. Ling Lun
C. Koumintang
D. Ongaku and gaku
86. The classical music of India includes the following varieties.
A. Carnatic and Hindustani music
B. Ling Lun
C. Koumintang
D. Ongaku and gaku
87. The legendary founder of music of China.
A. Lin Lun
B. Koumintang
C. Shih huang Ti
D. Zhou
88. In 1402, he commanded a large Chinese fleet along the coast towns of the Philippine Islands?
A. Cheng-Ho
B. Cheng
C. Ho
D. Me Chiang
89. The supreme daily of the ancient Filipinos.
A. Maykapal C. Babaylan
B. Bathala D. Katalona
90. He introduced the Islamic religion in the Philippines.
A. Mudum
B. Baginda
C. Amaya
D. Katalona
91. Known as “Province de Comintang” during the Spanish period.
A. Bataan C. Palawan
B. Cavite D. Batangas
92. The Spanish Governor-General who ordered the deportation of Jose Rizal to Dapitan, Zamboanga
Del Norte, Mindanao.
A. Gov. Gen. Blanco C. Gov. Gen. Despujol
B. Gov. Gen. Claveria D. Gov. Gen. Polavieja
93. The first word of the 1987 Philippine Constitution.
A. You C. I
B. We D. If
94. The first commercial bank in the Philippines and the Far East.
A. Allied Bank C. BDO
B. China Bank D. Banco Islas de Filipinas
95. The schools of the Pre-Spanish children in Panay Island.
A. Bothoan C. Bangka
B. Bototan D. Bandiwa
96. The last Filipino General who surrendered to the American during Filipino-American War.
A. Simeon Ola C. Miguel Malvar
B. Macario Sakay D. Gregorio Del Pilar
97. He named the Philippines as “Islas de San Lazaro”
A. Miguel Lopez de Legazpi C. Lapu-lapu

38. B. Ferdinand Magellan D. Francisco Dagohoy
98. The second group of people who migrated by sea to the Philippines.
A. Indonesians C. Vietnamese
B. Malaysians D. Chinese
99. The earliest form of writing in the Philippines.
A. Alibata C. Heiroglypics
B. Cuneiform D. Baybay
100. He designed the Rizal Monument.
A. Deodato Arellano
B. Abad Santos
C. David Nepomuceno
D. Richard Kissling

39. KEY TO CORRECTION
Social Science
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. C
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. A
10. C
11. A
12. C
13. D
14. A
15. D
16. D
17. D
18. A
19. A
20. B
21. C
22. A
23. B
24. B
25. D
26. B
27. A
28. D
29. D
30. A
31. C
32. A
33. A
34. A
35. A
36. A
37. C
38. B
39. C
40. D
41. C
42. D
43. A
44. B
45. D
46. C
47. A
48. B
49. C
50. B
51. C
52. D
53. D
54. B
55. B
56. A
57. B
58. C
59. A
60. A
61. D
62. C
63. A
64. A
65. D
66. C
67. B
68. D
69. A
70. C
71. B
72. B
73. B
74. A
75. A
76. C
77. C
78. B
79. D
80. A
81. C
82. A
83. A
84. A
85. D
86. A
87. A
88. A
89. B
90. A
91. D
92. C
93. B
94. D
95. A
96. A
97. B
98. A
99. A
100. D

40. NATURAL SCIENCE
1. Plants lose water through transpiration, which process is responsible for this?
A. diffusion
B. capillarity
C. surface tension
D. osmosis
2. Which of the following is produced during photosynthesis?
A. oxygen and inorganic compound
B. carbon dioxide and water
C. oxygen and water
D. oxygen and organic compound
3. What will be formed when radium isotope, with 88 protons and 138 neutrons undergoes alpha decay?
A. radon atom (Rn222) with 86 protons
B. francium atom (Fr222) with 87 protons
C. actinium atom (Ac222) with 89 protons
D. thorium atom (Th222) with 90 protons
4. Strontium-90 has a half life of 28 years. When atmospheric concentration os strontium-90 was
measured, it was found it to be 1/8 the amount that was measured many years ago. How many years
have passed since their first measurement?
A. 12 years C. 84 years
B. 28 years D. 56 years
5. How are ions formed?
A. by gaining or losing protons
B. by gaining or losing electrons
C. by sharing protons
D. by sharing electrons
6. Which of the following waves of visible light has the highest frequency?
A. violet
B. green
C. indigo
D. blue
7. Where is the earth located during a lunar eclipse?
A. behind the moon
B. between the sun and the moon
C. at a point 180 degrees from North
D. behind the sun
8. Which of the following parts can only be seen in plant cell?
A. mitochondria
B. a nucleus
C. lysosomes
D. a cell wall
9. How should conclusions be stated?
A. a form that can be evaluated by others
B. that it is completely correct, with no mistakes
C. that it works with only 1 set of data
D. that no one can refute the conclusion
10. A block of wood is at rest on top of a table. Which of the following is correct?
A. The block of wood has no inertia.
B. There is no force acting on the block.
C. The inertia of the book is equal to the inertia of the table.
D. The block of wood is in equilibrium.
11. What do you call that property of a moving object to continue moving in a straight line unless acted on
by outside force?
A. acceleration
B. velocity
C. inertia
D. speed

41. 12. A car initially at rest accelerates in a straight line at 6 m/s². What will be its speed after 3 seconds?
A. 18 m/s
B. 0 m/s
C. 9 m/s
D. 2 m/s
13. What do we determine when we specify both the magnitude and the direction of an object?
A. mass
B. acceleration
C. velocity
D. weight
14. The moon’s gravity is 1/6 of the earth’s gravity. What will be the weight of the bowling ball on earth?
A. 1/6 that of its weight on the moon
B. it varies
C. 6 times that of its weight on moon
D. equal that of its weight on moon
15. A certain element has an atomic numbe of 92 and an atomic mass number of 238. Which is true of
this element?
A. It has 92 protons, 146 neutrons, and 92 electrons
B. It has 92 protons, 238 neutrons, and 146 electrons
C. It has 146 protons, 92 neutrons, and 92 electrons
D. It has 92 protons, 146 neutrons, and 238 electrons
16. What is formed when elements are chemicaly combined?
A. alloys C. mixtures
B. nuclei D. compounds
17. What is the formula for determining density of an object?
A. mass plus volume C. volume divided by mass
B. mass divided by volume D. mass times volume
18. Which of the following is true for buoyant force?
A. It’s the force of gravity cting on a submerged object
B. It depends on the density of the submerged object
C. It is the net upward force of the surrounding liquid acting on a submerged object
D. it is the difference between a submerged object’s weight and the weight of an equal mass of
water
19. A block of wood floats in water. What can be said of its buoyant force?
A. Its buoyant force is greater than the weight of the wood
B. Its buoyant frce is equal to the weight of the wood
C. Its buoyant frce is less than the weight of the wood
D. Cannot be determined because the block is not completely submerged
20. An object with a mass of 2 kg displaces 1000 ml of water. Which of the following is true?
A. The weight of this object is 20 N.
B. The weight of this object is 5 N.
C. The buoyant force on this object is 500 N.
D. The buoyant force on this object is 30 N.
21. An object with a mass of 1.5 kg displaces 1 kg of water. Which of the following is true?
A. The buoyant force of this object is 10 N.
B. The buoyant force of this object is 15 N.
C. the buoyant force of this object is 25 N.
D. The density of the object is less than that of the water.
22. Water has a higher specific heat than iron. What does this mean?

42. A. water is hotter than iron
B. water heats more rapidly than iron
C. water is more dense than iron
D. water heats more slowly than iron
23. Which of the following is responsible for heat transfer by radiation?
A. atmospheric currents
B. collision of particles
C. electromagnetic waves
D. molecular and electronic collision
24. Which of the following is true when an object is positively charged?
A. It has a deficiency of neutrons C. It has a deficiency of electrons
B. It has an excess of neutrons D It has a deficiency of protons
25. What do you call the charges in an electrical circuit flowng in the same direction?
A. constant current C. direct current
B. an alternating current D. basic current
26. If the current in a wire is 5 amperes, how much charge will flow through it in 5 seconds?
A. 10 coulombs C. 2.5 coulombs
B. 25 coulombs D. 2 coulombs
27. If the voltage of 100 volts produces a current of 5 amperes in an electrical device, what is the
resistance?
A. 95 ohms. C. 105 ohms.
B. 20 ohms. D. 500 ohms.
28. If three light bulbs of different wattage are connected in series to a battery, which of the following is
true?
A. the resistance in each light bulb will be the same
B. the current in each light bulb will be the same
C. the light utput of each bulb will be the same
D. the power consumed by the light will be the same
29. What is true when material is transparent?
A. light can pass freely through in a straight line
B. it reflects light
C. it cannot emit any light
D. it absorbs light and redistributes the thermal energy
30. What is the weight of an object whose mass is 17.6 g?
A. 0.176 N C. 176 N
B. 1.76 N D. 17.6 N
31. Using the table below, what is the independent variable?
Food use Temperature Room
Lighting
Exposure Amount of moisture Result
White bread 35 degrees Dimly lighted Air High Plenty of molds
White bread 35 degrees Dimly lighted Air Low Tiny spots of
mold
A. type of bread C. exposure time
B. temperature D. amount of moist growth
32. What conclusion ca be formulated/stated from the above experiment?

43. A. Molds grow on bread.
B. Molds’ growth is dependent on
temperature.
C. Molds grow best in moist places.
D. Molds like breads.
33. What absorbs a portion of the radiation from the sun, preventing it from reaching the earth’s surface?
A. chlorofluorocarbon
B. hydrofluorocarbon
C. carbon dioxide
D. ozone layer
34. Which of the following is true about sub-atomic particles, mass number and atomic number?
A. The number of protons and electron is equal to the mass number.
B. Atomic number is equal to the number of protons.
C. Mass number is equal to the number of neutron and electron.
D. Mass number and atomic number are equal.
35. What do you call atoms of the same elements having the same atomic number but have different
mass number due to differences in their number of neutrons?
A. isotopes C. isomers
B. inert gases D. ion
36. Given the following electron configuration, determine the group umber nd period number of element.
1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s²
A. period 4, group 2 C. period 7, group 20
B. period 2, group 5 D. period 6, group 2
37. A chemical bond is an attractive force that holds atoms together. What type of chemical bond is
referred to as electrovalent or electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions?
A. metallic bond C. ionic bond
B. abnormal bond D. covalent bond
38. Which of the following statement is true?
A. orbitals make up a subshell; subshells make up a shell
B. shells make up an orbital; orbitals make up a subshell
C. subshells make up a shell; shells make up an orbital
D. shells make up subshell; shells make up orbital
39. If 100g of reactants are used up in a reaction, what will be the mass of the products?
A. 100 C. 25
B. 45 D. 50
40. Which of the following is not a chemical reaction?
A. ripening of fruit C. freezing of water
B. rusting of metal D. burning of wood
41. What happens to the volume of a confined gas if its pressure is doubled and its temperature remains
constant?
A. decrease C. increase
B. will remain the same D. impossible to determine
42. What differentiates a eukaryotic cell from a prokaryotic cell?
A. presence of nucleus C. preence of chromosomes
B. presence of cell membrane D. none of the above
43. What best describes a cold blooded animal?

44. A. They thrive in cold environment
B. Their body fluid temperature adapts to the environment
C. They are first order consumers
D. Their blood is cold
44. Organisms may reproduce sexually, asexually, or both sexually and asexually. Which of the following
is an example of sexual reproduction?
A. vegetative reproduction C. fission
B. union of gametes D. budding
45. During photosynthesis, plants produce food in the form of glucose, kown as the end product of
photosynthesis. In what form do plants and other autotrophic organisms store food?
A. Root Crops C. Rhizome
B. Fruits D. Starch
46. Genes are known as the units of heredity because they carry the hereditary information from
generation to generation. What organic compound in the genes does this work?
A. Carbohydrates C. Proteins
B. Lipids D. Nucleic Acid
47. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the levels of organization in human body?
A. cells>tissues>organs>system
B. organs>tissue>system>cells
C. system>ogans>tissue>cells
D. None of the above
48. The following are insects except one. Which of the following is not an insect?
A. mosquito C. spider
B. firefly D. ant
49. Which of the following is true of inertia?
A. It is the tendency of an object at rest to remain at rest.
B. It is the tendency of an obect in otion to gain speed.
C. It is the tendency of the movig object to change its direction.
D. It is the tendency of matter to disintegrate.
50. Which is the hottest star?
A. Red C. Yellow
B. Blue D. White
51. Which of the following statements explains Boyle’s Law?
A. The pressure exerted by a certain amount of gas is directly proportional to the volume of that
gas as long as the temperature remains constant.
B. The volume of a certain amount of gas is directly proportional to the temperature of that gas in
any situation.
C. The pressure exerted by a cetain amount of gas is inversely proportional to the volume of that
gas as long as the temperature remains constant
D. The volume of a certain amount of gas is dretly proportional to the temperature of that gas as
long as the pressure remains constant.
52. Which of the following statement explains Charles Law?
A. The pressure exerted by a certain amount of gas is inversely propoertional the volume of that
gas as long as the temperature remains constant.

45. B. The volume of a certain amount of gas is directly proportional to the temperature of that gas
as long as the pressure remains constant.
C. The volume of a certain amount of gas is directly proportional to the temperature of that gas
in any situation.
D. The volume of a certain amount of gas is inversely proportional to the temperature of that gas
as long as the pressure remains constant.
53. Which of the following explains the ideal gas law?
A. The current state of an ideals gas depends upon the volume, pressure, and temperature of
that gas.
B. The temperature of an ideal gas has no effect on the state of that gas.
C. The volume of a certain gas is inversely proportional to the temperature of that gas as long as
the pressure remains constant.
D. The pressure exerted by a certain amount of gas is directly proportional to the volume of that
gas as long as the temperature remains constant.
54. Which of the following are the three basic components of an atom?
A. protons, neutrons, ions
B. protons, neutrons, electrons
C. protons, electrons, ions
D. neutrons, electrons, ions
55. 14
6C and 12
6 C are examples of carbon.
A. ions C. valences
B. molecule D. isotopes
56. Why does greenhouse effect result to warmer temperature near the surface of the earth?
A. Ozone traps ultraviolet radiation.
B. Carbon dioxide traps infrared radiation
C. Clouds traps infrared radiation
D. Soil absorbs incoming radiation
57. Which two systems of yours when you move your leg?
A. Immune and Excretory
B. Nervous and Muscular
C. Digestive and respiratory
D. Circulatory and Integumentary
58. Barometer – Air pressure: ________ - ________
A. Decibel – Sound
B. Kilometer – Length
C. Thermometer – Temperature
D. Odometer – Smell
59. ______ - Cancer: Cardiologist - _________
A. Geologist – Earth
B. Cardiologist – Urethra
C. Oncologists – Heart
D. Leukemia – Lymph Nodes
60. Which of the following is the function of the chloroplast?
A. Mitosis and Meiosis
B. Cellular respiration
C. Conversion of the light energy to chemical energy
D. Protein synthesis
61. It is observed that most leaves have fewer stomata on the upper surface than on the lower surface. A
greater number of stomata on the upper surface would result in _____.
A. closing and opening of stomata on the lower surface
B. excessive loss of water
C. faster rate of photosynthesis
D. reduced transpiration

46. 62. A student placed some sliced of potato in a glass of drinking water. After a while she took a few slices
and found the slices very turgid. What can you infer from this observation?
A. The slices became smaller
B. The potato slices did not change in shape
C. Water was absorbed by the potato
D. Water moved out of the tissues of potato
63. Which of the following can contribute to the “greenhouse effect”?
A. Land plants using carbon dioxide
B. Depletion of minerals in soil by over farming
C. Destruction of forest
D. Capturing radiant energy using solar cells
64. In taxanomy, which classification is arranged from largest related groups to the smallest?
A. Species, genus, order, family, class, phylum, kingdom
B. Species, order, genus, family, class, phylum, kingdom
C. Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Order, Family, Genus, Species
D. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
65. Which of these is the correct representation of the hierarchical organization of life from least to most
complex?
A. hydrogen, water, heart muscle cell, nucleus, heart muscle tissues, heart, human
B. hydrogen, water, nucleus, heart muscle cell, heart muscle tissues, heart, human
C. hydrogen, water, nucleus, heart muscle cell, heart, heart muscle tissue, human
D. water, hydrogen, nucleus, heart muscle cell, heart muscle tissue, heart, human
66. Oxygen has an atomic number of 8. Therefore, it must have
A. 8 protons
B. 8 electrons
C. 6 neturons
D. Only A and B are correct
67. The mass number of an element can be easily approximated by adding together the number of
A. protons and neutrons
B. electrons orbitals in each energy
level
C. protons and electrons
D. neutrons and electrons
68. A mango leaf is at which level in the hierarchial organization of life?
A. Tissue
B. organ
C. organelle
D. population
69. Which of the following includes all the others?
A. ecosystem
B. community
C. individual
D. population
70. In a natural community, the primary consumers are
A. herbivores
B. carnivores
C. scavenger
D. decomposers
71. The following activities change the composition of the substance EXCEPT.
A. Corrosion of metal
B. Boiling of water
C. Decaying of leaves
D. Curdling of milk
72. Which of the following does not show chemical change?

47. A. Formation of precipitates
B. Evolution of gas
C. Change in temperature
D. Change in phase
73. Which of the following is non – biodegradable?
A. plastic straw
B. animal bones
C. tea leaves
D. dried plants
74. A stone is dropped in a graduated cylinder previously filled with water. This will cause the rising of the
level of water in the graduated cylinder. Why does the level of water rise?
A. The stone has more mass than water
B. The water is less dense than stone
C. The stone is heavy
D. The stone takes the place occupied by water
75. Which of the following is the manifestation of life?
A. reproduction C. responsiveness
B. genetic control D. all of the above
76. Why is it easier to stay afloat when on a beach that when in a swimming pool?
A. Freshwater is denser than sea water
B. Sea water is denser than the freshwater
C. Freshwater provides a greater buoyant force on you
D. Beach has a bigger area than a swimming pool
77. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the most penetrating power?
A. x – rays
B. radio waves
C. gamma rays
D. ultraviolet rays
78. Mother needs a material to be used as a handle of a cooking utensils which of the following materials
should she use?
A. Aluminum
B. Wood
C. Iron
D. Copper
79. Which of the following characteristics is true both in pure substances and mixture?
A. It has a sharp boiling point
B. It has definite composition
C. It consists of a single phase
D. Its components lose their individual properties
80. Which of the following results are is not due to depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer?
A. Higher rates of skin cancer
B. Higher rates of lung cancer
C. Greater incidence of premature skin aging
D. Enhanced incidence of severe sunburns
81. Which of the following best describes the process of osmosis?
A. It is a is the physical process by which the cytoplasm of a cell divides to split the two cells.
B. It is a is the physical process by which a cell divides itself into four completely new cells.
C. It is a is the physical process by which a cell divides itself into two completely new, but
identical cells.
D. It is a is the physical process by which fluid moves through a membrane.
82. Which of the following statements describes the process of metabolism?
A. It is process by which an organism produces and uses energy.

48. B. It is process by which fluid moves through membrane.
C. It is process by which a cell duplicates itself.
D. It is process by which a cell defends the organism from outside attackers.
83. Which of the following is an alternative to ozone depleting substances?
A. Hydroflourocarbons
B. Chloroflorocarbons
C. Carbon Tetrachloride
D. Methyl bromide
84. Why is predation an important process in maintaining balance in ecosystem?
A. it kills all harmful organsims
B. it keeps the size of the population
C. it prevents the small organisms from wandering
D. it makes the food chain complete
85. A scientific study showed that the depth at which algae were present in a lake varied in different
times. During sunny days, the algae were found as much as 6 meters below the surface of the water.
However, on cloudy days but were only 1 meter below the surface. Which hypothesis best explains these
observations?
A. Wind currents affect the growth of algae
B. Precipitation affects growth of algae.
C. Nitrogen concentration affects the growth of algae.
D. Light intensity affects growth of algae.
86. Which of the following colors have the longest wavelength?
A. Red
B. Green
C. Violet
D. Orange
87. Acid rain occurs when
A. carbon dioxide combines with water in the atmosphere.
B. phosphorus-rich water in lakes evaporates to form phosphoric acid
C. sulfur released in burning fossil fuels combines with water in the atmosphere
D. excess hydrogen is released into the atmosphere where ozone is formed.
88. A certain volcano is made up of alternating layer of lava and fragmental materials. Due to this its
eruption style may vary from a relatively quiet eruption to a more explosive type. What is this kind of
volcano?
A. cinder
B. composite
C. shield
D. none of these
89. Which of the following differentiates intensity and magnitude?
A. Intensity measures strength while magnitude measures the energy of an earthquake.
B. Intensity determines the focus of an earthquake while magnitude determines its epicenter
C. There is no difference between an earthquake’s intensity and magnitude.
D. Both a and b are correct.
90. The following are parts of the circulatory system EXCEPT:
A. lungs
B. blood
C. heart
D. blood vessel

49. 91. Which of the following parts of the cell is present only among plants?
A. cell membranes
B. nucleus
C. chloroplast
D. mitochondrion
92. Cations are generated in the process of
A. Electron gain
B. Electron lost
C. Hybridization
D. Delocalization
93. Which of the following shows work is done when blowing a balloon?
A. The balloon has potential energy which is charged to kinetic energy.
B. The balloon is filled with air which has weight and occupied space
C. The balloon moves outward as the force is exerted on it.
D. The force of gravity on the balloon increases.
94. Water boils at a lower temperature on a mountain than on the sea level. Why is this so?
A. The temperature of the air rises as the height increases
B. The atmospheric pressure is lower as the height increases
C. The temperature of the air falls as the height increases
D. The atmospheric pressure is higher as the height increases.
95. When is the sex of the child determined?
A. During ovulation period of a woman
B. When the embryo is implanted in the uterus
C. After the first few division of the zygote
D. At the moment of fertilization
96. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Atoms of isotopes of an element have different numbers of protons
B. The nucleus of an atom contains the protons and the neutrons
C. The nucleus of an atom is positively charge
D. Atoms are mostly empty spaces.
97. Which type of volcano is the least explosive?
A. Shield volcano
B. Composite
C. Cinder
D. Stratovolcano
98. Which of the following is an anthropod?
A. snail C. starfish
B. mosquito D. jellyfish
99. Which of the following is used in classifying rocks into three main types?
A. formation C. texture
B. color D. size
100. Is CO2 matter?
A. No, because it is gas C. Yes, because molecules are matter
B. Not sure, because it can’t be seen D. Both A and B

50. KEY TO CORRECTION
Natural Science
1. B
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. B
6. A
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. D
11. C
12. A
13. C
14. C
15. A
16. D
17. B
18. C
19. B
20. A
21. A
22. D
23. C
24. C
25. C
26. B
27. B
28. B
29. A
30. A
31. D
32. C
33. D
34. B
35. A
36. A
37. C
38. A
39. A
40. C
41. A
42. A
43. B
44. C
45. D
46. D
47. A
48. C
49. A
50. B
51. C
52. B
53. A
54. B
55. D
56. B
57. B
58. C
59. C
60. C
61. B
62. C
63. C
64. D
65. B
66. D
67. A
68. B
69. A
70. A
71. B
72. D
73. A
74. D
75. D
76. B
77. C
78. B
79. C
80. B
81. D
82. A
83. A
84. B
85. D
86. A
87. C
88. B
89. A
90. A
91. C
92. B
93. C
94. B
95. D
96. A
97. A
98. B
99. A
100. C

51. CHILD AND ADOLESCENT DEVELOPMENT
1. According to Sigmund Freud, there is a stage wherein young boys experience a strong rivalry with
Father for their mother’s affection. This period is known as _________.
A. Oedipus Complex
B. Elektra Complex
C. Achilles Syndrome
D. Cassandra Syndrome
2. Catherine is a resilient child with superior intelligence. She grew up in a very poor environment. With
this condition, the probable outcome would be
A. No change in IQ because the environment deprivation has nothing to do with intelligence
B. Slight change in IQ although he can overcome frustration and obstacle
C. Mental retardation since he is culturally dprived.
D. Great change in IQ because he is culturally deprived
3. Trishia a 1 and half year old girl, baby talks and commonly mispronounces words. This is regarded as
cute by her parents and relatives. They are not aware that this attitude towards Trishia’s
mispronounciation might create a speech hazard on the part of Trishia. If parent hear their children
mispronounce words, they must:
A. correct their mistakes
B. ask the child to rephrase the statement
C. ignore the statement until the child says it correctly on his own.
D. respond to the content of the statement and ignore the error.
4. The following is TRUE in the development of understanding in early childhood, EXCEPT
A. abilities to reason and too see relationship.
B. sensory experiences.
C. ability to explore their environment.
D. ability to ask questions.
5. The following concept of development is true EXCEPT:
A. Development is a continuous process.
B. The sequence of development is the same for all children
C. Maturation has nothing to do with development
D. Certain reflexes present at birth anticipate voluntary movement
6. Which of the following is an expression of child’s interest in his body?
A. looking at themselves in the mirror.
B. looking at the picture of adult men and women
C. commenting on various parts of the body and ask questions about them.
D. comparing themselves with others.
7. Which statement should be omitted when we talk about adolescence?
A. It begins with the onset of puberty
B. It is a time where the young person is longer a child but is not yet an adult
C. It ends when puberty is complete
D. It is a time of preoccupation with one’s own thought.
8. Following Piaget’s Theory of Cognitive Development, Ms. Ramirez provides her students varied
activities that enable them to classify objects according to more than one variable, rank order items in
logical series and understand that amount of mass or liquid do not change because their shape does.
These developments can be expected to be performed by
A. Preschoolers C. High school students
B. College students D. Elementary school children
9. This theorist proposed that human activity is based on association and response.
A. Sigmund Freud C. BF Skinner
B. Ivan Pavlov D. Edward Thorndike

52. 10. If we want children to treat each other with courtesy and dignity, then we must do the same to them. If
we yell at children, they will soon be shouting at each other. These behaviors are likely to be
demonstrated by children because
A. They are imitative
B. They learn best by observing a model
C. They are helpless and entirely dependent on adults
D. They are afraid of other teachers if they fail to follow
11. Motor development is manifested by a particular child who __________.
A. knows how to control his emotions because he could not ride the motorcycle.
B. recognizes the different sizes of toys given to him.
C. has playmates within the neighborhood and is popular among kids
D. learns how to walk, run, steer and jump
12. This is a phenomenon in Psychology wherein students perform better than other students simply
because they were expected to do so
A. Rosenthal or Pygmalion
B. John Henry effect
C. Hawthrone effect
D. Withitness
13. Teacher Lawrence scolded a pupil named Pewee for not listening attentively. As a result, the whole
class paid attention to Teacher Lawrence. What explains the phenomenon?
A. Placebo effect
B. Halo effect
C. Ripple effect
D. John Henry effect
14. This view of education promotes that education started from primitive people particularly those of the
tribe.
A. Evolutionist
B. Creationist
C. Culturalist
D. Progressivist
15. Tricia, a Third Year student is popular not only in her classroom but also in the entire campus. She is
always invited to soirees and pygama parties. Students are drawn to her because of her seemingly
friendly attitude. This intelligence according to Gardner is known as _____________.
A. Popularity
B. Congenial
C. Interpersonal
D. Intrapersonal
16. Krathwohl is famous for his Taxonomy of Affective Domain, while Anita Harrow is known for his
_______ domain.
A. Affective C. Cognitive
B. Psychomotor D. Metacognition
17. The following negates facilitating learning EXCEPT:
A. focus on the right side of the brain
B. involve both sides of the brain
C. focus on cognitive objectives all the time
D. focus on the left side of the brain
18. Using Bloom’s Taxanomy, the highest among the following is.
A. Critical comprehension
B. Critical evaluation
C. Integration
D. Literal comprehension

53. 19. Among the following educators, who proposed the placement of children in a “prepared
environment”?
A. Thorndike
B. Montessori
C. Kilpatrick
D. Froebel
20. According to Erickson, a major conflict in the first year of life is that between
A. trust versus mistrust
B. initiative versus gulit
C. autonomy versus shame and doubt
D. relatedness vs. isolation
21. Identification with peer groups
A. decreases during adolescence
B. gives an adolescent a measure of security and a sense of identity
C. reduces self-esteem and self-worth
D. seems to always lead to incredibly destrictive behaviors.
22. Which among the following drugs is commonly used for children with ADHD?
A. Haldol
B. Thorazine
C. Ritalin
D. Valium
23. What is the main reason why children with ADHD have limited learning skills?
A. are mildly retarded.
B. act on impulse and cannot concentrate.
C. must take stimulants which shorthen attention span.
D. are given sedatives which make them listless.
24. Gary a 3 yo boy lacks the ability to control his bowel. He could be suffering from?
A. enuresis.
B. analism.
C. encopresis.
D. anorexia nervosa
25. What is passive euthanasia?
A. a person’s body is frozen upon death.
B. drugs are administered to hasten death.
C. body temperature is lowered to delay death.
D. death is allowed but not caused.
26. Many concerned parents commonly make the mistake of
A. deliberately creating high levels of stress for their child.
B. unintentionally creating high levels of stress for their child.
C. attempting to protect their children from all stress.
D. unintentionally rewarding their children for creating stress.
27. Who among the following advocated that we face a specific psychosocial dilemma at each stage of
life?
A. James Coleman
B. Lawrence Kohlberg
C. Erik Erickson
D. Sigmund Freud
28. Why are life stages important?
A. they represent the outcome of major biological changes.
B. they represent a set of developmental tasks to be mastered.
C. they provide insight into values and aspirations of particular cultures.
D. their beginning and end are perfectly correlated with chronological age.