Question 152.5 points Save One of the advantages of an MBO program .pdf

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Question 152.5 points Save One of the advantages of an MBO program is that it continually emphasizes what should be done in order for the organization to reach its goals.TrueFalse Solution 15) True 16) True 17) intermediate-term objectives 18) develop the premises upon which each alternative is based 19) True 20) organizing 21) False 22) true 23) false 24) true 25) the operating environment 26) employee groups 27) Differentiation 28) he threat of substitute products 29) strategy implementation.

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Q21. A nation\'s raw materials and sources of energy are considered part of its capital resources. a. true b. false Q22. Comparative advantage cannot be applied to activities of individuals. a. true b. false Q23. Which of the following is true of scarcity? a. it applies to raw materials; manufactured goods are not scarce b. it affects all countries except the United States and Western Europe c. it is a basic problem of economics that affects all nations d. it is a basic problem of economics that affects all nations Q24. The ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other producers face is known as comparative advantage. a. true b. false Q25. Under the U.S. market system, land and capital goods are owned mainly by a. the federal government b. individuals and firms c. local governments d. state governments Q26. A major disadvantage of a corporation is a. its weakness at raising funds b. its inability to limit the financial liability of the owners c. the double taxation of its profits d. its lack of continuity in the event of a stockholder\'s death Q27. The major advantage of the sole proprietorship is its a. ability to raise funds b. lack of distinction between business and owner c. provision of continuity in the business in case of death d. flexible management Solution Q21. A nation\'s raw materials and sources of energy are considered part of its capital resources. \"True\". Capital resources are goods produced and used to make other goods and services. Raw materials and sources of energy are used in producing goods and services hence are capital resources. Q22. Comparative advantage cannot be applied to activities of individuals. \"False\". Comparative advantage arises when one does an activity with lesser reources and with lesser opportunity costs that others, hence it can be applied. Q23. Scarcity \"is a basic problem of economics that affects all nations\". All economic problems of all nations arises out of the fact that resources are scarce in nature. Q24. The ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other producers face is known as comparative advantage. \"True\". Q25. Under the U.S. market system, land and capital goods are owned mainly by \" individuals and firms\" Because US is a more of a Capitalist economy. Q26. A major disadvantage of a corporation is \"the double taxation of its profits\". Because it is very much suitable in raising funds, limiting owners liability and continuation even at death of owner. Q27. The major advantage of the sole proprietorship is its \"flexible management\". Because a sole proprietorship firm is generally small in size and its management lies in control of owner..

Q21. A nations raw materials and sources of energy are considered .pdf

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Q11.one of the great discoveries of biology is that organisms have a.pdf

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Q1. Which of the following examples best aligns a company\'s competencies and strategic goals with philanthropic activity? a. Merck uses its pharmaceutical expertise to develop a drug to combat river blindness and donates millions of doses to poor countries. b. The local telephone company donates money to the Youth Soccer Foundation to help pay for the upkeep of soccer fields and equipment. c. Ben and Jerry\'s Homemade ice cream company donates a percentage of its pretax profits to support peace initiatives. d. A hair salon donates one dollar of every haircut to support the local food bank\'s annual holiday food drive. e. A local gas station has a program in which its employees are partnered with disadvantaged youths as mentors. Q2. How could the relationship between employer and employee be best characterized until the early 1900s? a. Supportive b. Teamwork c. Mother-daughter d. Father-son e. Master- servant Q3. Which of the following situations may constitute quid pro quo sexual harassment? a. A male coworker makes unwelcomed sexual advances toward a female coworker, which causes her to feel that her job is threatened. b. A male manager suggests to one of his female employees that she will receive a raise if she wears shorter skirts and works \'overtime\' once a week. c. Many male employees of a company make repeated remarks about how men are more intelligent than women, which makes the environment difficult for female employees. d. A female employee asks one of her subordinates out to dinner over and over again even though he always tells her no, and he is beginning to feel uncomfortable around her. e. A male employee often disseminates e-mails of a sexual nature to his coworkers that creates an awkward atmosphere for a couple of his female coworkers. Q4. In the ACORN model for handling generational diversity in the workplace, the \'N\' stands for a. not limiting employees\' right to speak out. b. never forgetting that all employees are valuable. c. notifying people early of workplace reduction plans. d. noticing the problems when generations talk to one another. e. nourishing retention to keep the best employees. Q5. What type of product is a television? a. Durable b. Recyclable c. Consumable d. Unsalable e. Disposable Q6. _____ involves the sharing of business information, maintaining business relationships, and conducting business transactions by means of telecommunications networks. a. Web-based relational approach b. Internet marketing c. E-commerce d. Commerce online e. Internet data interchange Q7. Which of the following provides the best description of the community stakeholder for an organization? a. The entire county in which the organization is located is the community stakeholder because the impact of the organization reaches beyond the city to the entire county. b. The community aspect of the stakeholder model includes the entire region in which the company operates. c. The entire city in which the organization operates will b.

Q1. Which of the following examples best aligns a companys compete.pdf

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Q1. The total resource cost of goods and services produced by the U. S. economy is known as a. real GDP b. personal income c. national wealth d. national income Q2. The difference between GDP and final sales equals a. depreciation b. exports c. imports d. net inventory change Q3. Current disposable income can be adjusted for price changes and population changes to yield real per capita disposable income. a. true b. false Q4. If a lawn service mows your grass, it is included in the GDP. a. true b. false Q5. In national income accounting, grain fed to a hog at a commercial hog farm is considered a(n) a. final good b. intermediate good c. consumer good d. capital consumption allowance Q6. Imports constitute a minus figure in national income accounting. a. true b. false Q7. The total value added in the production of a final good a. exceeds the price of the final good b. equals the price of the final good c. exceeds the total payments made to owners of productive resources used in the production d. both (b) and (c) Q8. The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce. a. true b. false Q9. Transfer payments are added to NI in the process of determining personal income. a. true b. false Q10. U.S. gross domestic product is converted to U.S. gross national product by a. adding the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries b. subtracting the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries c. subtracting the value of output produced in the United States by foreign-owned resources d. both (a) and (c) Q11. Final sales are always larger than the GDP. a. true b. false Q12. Because of the value of things produced inside households, (building your own desk, mowing your own lawn, etc.) a. the GDP value is automatically adjusted upward to reflect this b. the GDP value is automatically adjusted downward to reflect this c. Official GDP is surely smaller than true total output d. Official GDP is surely larger than true total output Q13. A government surplus may trigger a decline in the money supply. a. true b. false Q14. Real wages are determined by multiplying money wages by the CPI. a. true b. false Q15. The more volatile the inflation rate, the weaker the money supply as a standard of deferred payment. a. true b. false Q16. An increase in the money supply always causes an increase in the price level. a. true b. false Q17. Your nominal wages rose during the same period from $200 a week to $260. By how much did your real income rise? a. 30 percent b. 16.7 percent c. 8.33 percent d. 12 percent Q18. In the past 10 years or so, average real wages of U.S. workers in nonagricultural industries have a. increased about 40 percent b. increased slightly c. remained about the same d. declined Q19. If a new cash deposit creates excess reserves of $5,000 and the required reserve ratio is 10 percent, the banking system can increase the money supply by a maximum of a. $50,000 b. $500 c. $5,000 d. $4,500 Q20..

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Q1. Definitions of leadership: a. strongly influence the design and interpretation of research b. are strongly influenced by research on unconscious processes c. reflect general agreement about the nature of leadership d. are pointless because there is no basis for verification Q2. What is the most common element in definitions of leadership? a. leadership is an authority relationship b. leadership is the ability to make good decisions c. leadership is an attribution made by followers d. leadership is an influence process Q3. Charismatic leadership is an example of which approach for studying leadership? a. leader traits b. leader behavior c. situational d. integrative Q4. Most leadership theories emphasize: a. leader characteristics b. follower characteristics c. both leader and follower characteristics d. characteristics of the leadership situation Q5. What level of leadership processes is emphasized in most theories of effective leadership? a. intra-individual b. dyadic c. group d. organizational Q6. Leadership effectiveness is best assessed: a. by evaluations from the leader\'s boss b. by subordinate evaluations of the leader c. by a variety of subjective and objective criteria d. by objective indicators of group performance Q7. Recent leadership theories such as charismatic and transformational leadership: a. emphasize rational processes more than rational processes b. emphasize emotional processes more than rational processes c. describe emotional and rational processes as equally important d. de-emphasized both rational and emotional processes Q8. Which is the least accurate statement about the outcomes of leadership actions? a. immediate and delayed outcomes are usually consistent with each other b. immediate outcomes are easier to predict than end-result outcomes c. immediate and delayed outcomes are usually interrelated in complex causal chains d. end-result outcomes are less useful as criteria of leadership effectiveness Q9. What is the best explanation for so many different definitions of leadership? a. scholarly nitpicking b. disagreement about what should be considered leadership processes c. leadership behavior cannot be studied in a scientific way d. leadership is a very old topic Q10. What process is emphasized in the definition of leadership proposed by Yukl? a. influencing followers to have complete trust in the leader b. motivating followers to do more than they initially expected c. facilitating collective efforts to accomplish shared objectives d. empowering each follower to become self reliant Q11. The descriptive research found that a network of contacts and cooperative relationships is especially important to: a. motivate subordinates b. implement change c. improve time management d. identify quality problems in the work Q12. Which of the following was not found to be characteristic of managers in most descriptive studies? a. they spend much of their time engaged in oral communication b. they spend considerable time e.

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Q1: Writing is an important form of communication. Goodwriters use different writing techniques to fit their purpose for writing. Commentonit.10 Q2: Rearrange the sentences to form a completesentence. 5 Solution Writing is an important form ofcommunication. Good writers use different writing techniques to fittheir purpose for writing. To be a good writer, you must mastereach of the following writing techniques. Through description, a writer helps thereader use the senses of feeling, seeing, hearing, smelling, andtasting to experience what the writer experiences. Descriptionhelps the reader more clearly understand the people, places, andthings about which the writer is writing. It is the most commonform of writing. You will find descriptive writing in newspapers,magazines, books, and most other forms of writtencommunication. Through exposition, a writer informs,explains, and clarifies his/her ideas and thoughts. Exposition goesbeyond description to help the reader understand with greaterclarity and depth the ideas and thoughts of the writer. Expositorywriting, like descriptive writing, is commonly found in newspapers,magazines, books, and most other forms of writtencommunication. Through narration, a writer tells a story.A story has characters, a setting, a time, a problem, attempts atsolving the problem, and a solution to the problem. Bedtime storiesare examples of short stories while novels are examples of longstories. The scripts written for movies and plays are furtherexamples of narrative writing. When the rabbit saw the falcon, it ranfast. We spent about three hours trying to pullout the car. Suddenly, I met a Bedouin man who wasriding his camel. My friend and I were in the best shop thatshe owns..

Q1 Writing is an important form of communication. Goodwriters use d.pdf

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Q1: Signal words help to lead the reader in thedirection writer wants to go; an effective writer uses differenttype of transitions in his writing for this purpose. Discuss atleast FIVE of them withexamples. Q2: A sentence with an incomplete verb is afragment. Insert appropriate forms of to be or tohave wherever they areneeded. 1. Ali coming home from school soon. 2. Sara\'s favorite singer featured on the radio lastnight. 3. I seen enough of your silly behaviornow. 4. She knits all day while you traveling. 5. Finally the teachers begun theirmeeting. Solution 2. Sara\'s favorite singer WAS featured on the radio lastnight. 3. I HAVE seen enough of your silly behaviornow. 4. She knits all day while you ARE traveling. 5. Finally the teachers HAVE begun their meeting..

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Q. The House managed to load the die in such a way that the faces “2” and “4” show up twice as frequently as all other faces. Meanwhile, all the other faces still show up with equal frequency. Write the probability distribution for this loaded die, showing each outcome and its probability. Solution as 2 and 4 are twice as likely to occour, we can change our sample space as- S={1,2,2,3,4,4,5,6} ==>probablity=favourable/total =>p(1)=1/8 =>p(2)=2/8=1/4 =>p(3)=1/8 =>p(4)=2/8=1/4 =>p(5)=1/8 =>p(6)=1/8.

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Q. The House managed to load the die in such a way that the faces \"2\" and \"4\" show up twice as frequently as all other faces. Meanwhile, all the other faces still show up with equal frequency. What is the probability of getting a \"5\" when rolling this loaded die? Solution If the proabilty of getting a 2 or a 4 is twice the probability of getting any of the other numbers, then the probability of a 2 or 4 is 1/4, and the probabilty of any other number is XXXXX This is found by letting x represent the probabilty of the other numbers, and then 2x represents the probabilty of 2 and 4. This gives: P(1) + P(2) + P(3) + P(4) + P(5) + P(6) = 1.00 x + 2x + x + 2x + x + x = 1.00 8x = 1.00 x = 1/8 Then the probabilty of a 5 with the loaded die is 1/8.

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Q.1 What is the purpose of audit risk assessment? What are its objectives, and why is it important in assessing the likelihood that fraud may occur? Q.2 Distinguish between an auditor\'s responsibilities to detect and report errors, illegal acts, and fraud. What role does materiality have in determing the proper reporting and disclosure of such events? Solution Answer1. Risk Assessment is the identification and analysis of risks to the achievement of an organization\'s objectives, for the purpose of determining how those risks should be managed. Risk assessment implies an initial determination of operating objectives, then a systematic identification of those activities or events that could prevent a business unit from reaching its objectives.. In other words, it\'s an analysis of what could go wrong. Fraud is defined as the intentional false representation or concealment of a material fact for the purpose of inducing another to act upon it to his or her injury (as defined by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants). Answer 2. Auditors have a responsibility to obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements are free of material misstatement, whether due to fraud or error. -Should assess the RoMM(Risk of Material Misstatement ) whether from errors, illegal acts, or fraud during the planning phase -Provide reasonable assurance of detecting such misstatements -Use professional skepticism, a questioning mind, and critical analysis -Illegal Acts: auditors should focus on illegal acts that would have direct effects on the financial statements. indirect illegal acts require disclosure only and may result in fines and penalties -Materiality determines how much of a role the auditor should have in determining the proper reporting and disclosure of such events..

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Q.Compute the point estimate of the proportion of Republicans who indicate they would participate in online surveys. Compute the point estimate for the Democrats. In recent years, the number of people who use the Internet to obtain political news has grown. Often the political Web sites ask Internet users to register their opinions by participating in online surveys. Pew Research Center conducted a survey of its own to learn about the participation of Republicans and Democrats in online surveys (Associated Press, January 6, 2003). The following sample data apply. Q. Compute the point estimate of the proportion of Republicans who indicate they would participate in online surveys. Compute the point estimate for the Democrats. p democrats = Solution phat=98/350=0.28.

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