5. •Myositis
•1 muscle hurts
•Polymyocytis
•Bunch of muscles Hurt
•Dermatomyositis
•HELIOTROPIC RASH + muscle pain
•Fibrositis
•Muscle insertions hurt when you move them
•Fibromyalgia
•Hurts all the time
•Polymyalgia Rheumatica
•Weekness in the SHOULDER GURDLE…. Associated with temporal arteritis
•Temporal Arteritis
•Macrophages eating temporal artery, ESR > 60
65. When do you see elevated ESR?
Non-specific inflammation
When do you see Falsely high ESR?
Anemia
When do you see Falsely LOW ESR?
Sickle Cell Anemia
Polycythemia
Acute Phase Reactants?
IL-6
207. Papilloma virus?
Cervical CA
EBV?
Burkitts
Nasopharyngeal CA
HepB & C?
Liver CA
HIV?
Kaposi’s Sarcoma
208. Clot in front of renal artery?
Renal artery stenosis
Clot off whole renal artery?
Renal failure
Inflamed glomeruli?
Glumerulo nephritis
Clot in papilla?
Papillary necrosis
Clot off medulla?
Interstitial nephritis
Clot off pieces of nephron?
Focal segmental GN (HIV, drug use association)
Clot off lots of nephrons?
Rapidly Progressive GN
216. What does tPA, Streptokinase, Urokinase inhibit?
Aminocaproic acid
What doe Warfarin inhibit?
Vitamin K
What does Heparin inhibit?
Protamine Sulfate
234. Gram +
Basement membrane suppressor
Works on simple anaerobes
The #1 cause of anaphylaxis
Causes interstial nepritits
Causes nonspecific rashes
Acts as a hapten causing hemolytic anemia
237. Prodromal period before symptoms = 1-3
weeks
Why is there a prodromal period?
Because must switch to positive stranded before
replication
238. Symptoms within 1 week or less
EXCEPTIONS:
Hanta
Ebola
Yellow fever
They are -ve stranded = don’t have to switch to
positive before replicating
239. Transposition of the great arteries
Tetrology of Fallot
Truncus Arteriosus
Tricuspid Atresia
Total anomalous pulmunary Venous Return
Hypoplastic Left heart syndrome
Ebstein’s anomaly
Aortic atresia
Pulmonary atresia
253. Erb-B2?
Breast CA
Ovarian CA
Gastric CA
Ret?
Medullary CA of thyroid
Men II & III
Papillary carcinoma
254. Ki-ras?
Lung CA
Colon CA
Bcl-2?
Burkitts
Follicular lymphoma
Erb?
Retinoblastoma
255. Relax hCG Is HOPE
Relaxin
hCG
Inhibin
Human placental lactogen (HPL)
Oxytocin (drug lactation, pit gland prod it also)
Progesterone
Estrogen
256. Severity of microscopic change
Degree of differentiation
257. Degree of dissemination of tumor
What the surgeon sees
258. Urticaria/Hives?
Any CA, especially lymphoma
Pagets Ds (ulcers around nipples)
Seborrheic keratosis (waxy warts)?
Colon CA
HIV if sudden increase in number
Normal with aging
259. Actinic keratosis?
Dry scaly plaques on sun-exposed skin
Squamous Cell CA of skin
Dermatomyositis?
violacious, heliotropic rash, malar area
Colon CA
260. Akanthosis nigricans?
dark lines in skin folds
Any visceral CA
End organ damage
Erythema nodosum?
ant aspect of legs, tender nodules
Anything granulomatous
NOT assoc. w/ bacteria
261. Apo E
Apo A
Apo CII
L-CAT
lecithin cholesterol acetyl transferase
Cholesterol
from periphery to liver
262. Apo B-100
Apo E
Apo C II
Triglcyerides (95%)
Cholesterol (5%)
263. Apo B-100
Apo E
Apo CII
Triglycerides (< VLDL)
Cholesterol (>VLDL)
264. Apo B-100
Cholesterol
from liver to tissue
NOT a good thing!!!!!
265. Apo A
Apo B-48
Apo E
Apo C II
Triglycerides from:
GI to liver (25% of the time)
GI to endothelium (75% of the time)
302. Schiller-Duvall?
Yolk sac tumor
Basal bodies?
Only found in smooth mm
303. Mnemonic? ACID
Type I
Anaphylaxis/Atopic
Type II
Cytotoxic (Humoral)
Type III
Immune complex mediation
Type IV
Delayed hypersensitivity/Cell mediated
304. Atopic
IgE (Asthma) binds to mast cell
IgA activates IP3 cascade degrading mast cells
305. Humoral
What are examples of type II?
Rh disease
Goodpastures
Autoimmune hemolytic Anemia
All Autoimmune diseases
except RA and SLE
306. Ag-Ab complement
What are examples of Type III?
RA
SLE
Vasculitides
Some GN?
307. Cell mediated
What are examples of Type IV?
TB skin test
Contact dermatitis
Transplant rejection
311. Tx?
N-acetylcysteine
Test used to detect CF?
Pilocarpine sweat test
What ion does this test measure?
Cl-
Definitive presence of disease has a test value of what?
>60
312. What is the value in a normal person?
<20
What is the value in a heterozygous person?
30 – 60
What chromosome is the CF gene on?
Chrom 7
What Second messenger is used?
IP3/DAG
313. Bacillus anthracis
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium melangosepticus
What is the chemical in spores?
Calcium dipocholinate
345. Blocks B-subunit of RNA polymerase
Prophylaxis for contacts of N. meningitidis
346. Cell wall inhibitor
Binds irreversibly to Phopholipase carrier
Bacteriacidal
Covers all gram +ves
Linezolid
347. Blocks vitamin k dependent gamma-
carboxylation of prothrombin and factors
2, 7, 9, 10, proteins C & S
348. Blocks translation by binding the 50S subunit
349. What type of hemolysis is alpha hemolysis?
Partial hemolysis
What color is it’s zone?
Green
What type of hemolysis is beta-hemolysis?
Complete hemolysis
350. What color is it’s zone
Clear
eg. Streptokinase
What type of hemolysis is gamma-hemolysis?
No hemolysis
What color is it’s zone?
Red
351. High urine PH (??????not sure about this)
Acidosis
UTI s
Stones
Babies die < 1 yr old
352. Acidosis
urine PH = 2, normal is 5-6
Hypokalmia
Patients have NO carbonic anhydrase
353. It is a combination of RTA I & III
Normal urine pH
Hypokalemia
354. Seen in diabetics
Hyperkalemia
NO aldosterone b/c JG apparatus has infarcted
365. Release of glycine from spinal cord
What physical finding would you see?
Lock jaw
What is the tx?
Antitoxin and Toxoid
Where is it injected?
Injected in different areas of body
366. E. coli
Followed by?
Proteus
Followed by?
Klebsiella
367. Staph saprophyticus
Why?
They stick things in themselves
18-24 yoa?
Staph saprophyticus
Why?
Because they stick things inside themselves
Why no UTI’s after 24?
Because women are use to penises and Staph saprophyticus lives
on penis (becomes part of normal flora).
368. Osteomyelitis
Because of what?
Collagenase
412. What is the MOA?
Interferes with normal synthesis and gama
carboxylation of Vit. K dependent clotting
factors via vitamin K antagonism.
Is it long or short acting?
Long half-life
8-10 hours to act
413. Clinical use?
Chronic anticoagulation
Contra-indication?
Pregnancy because it can cross the placenta
414. What pathway does it affect?
Extrinsic pathway
What does it do to PT?
Prolongs
PT
415. What are the toxicities?
Bleeding
Teratogenic
Drug-drug interactions
How is it activatied?
Tissue activated
418. What is the MOA?
Catalyzes the activation of antithrombin III
Decreases thrombin and Xa
Is it long or short acting?
Short half-life
Acts immediately
419. Clinical use?
Immediate anticoagulation of pulmonary
embolism, stroke, angina, MI, DVT.
Contra-indication?
Can be used during pregnancy because it does
not cross the placenta
420. What pathway does it affect?
Intrinsic pathway
What value should you follow?
PTT
421. What are the toxicities?
Bleeding
Thrombocytopenia
Drug-drug interactions
How is it activatied?
Blood activated
422. Administration?
I.V.
Drug of choice for what?
DVT
423. What is good about the newer low-molecular-
weight heparins?
They act more on Xa
Have better bioavailability
Have 2 to 4 times longer half life
Can be administered subcutaneously and
without laboratory monitoring.
479. It ADP ribosylates EF2 inhibiting protein
synthesis
Is it Gram +/-?
+
Where and how does it get its exotoxin?
From virus via transduction
480. What does it cause?
Heart block
What do you give for Tx?
Antitoxin
Never scrape membrane
490. D W
+ A B A+B
_ C D C+D
A+C B+D ALL
Sensitivity A/A+C Sensitivity: Truly Diseased People Always in the
Specificity D/B+D Specificity: Truly Well People numerator
PPV A/A+B + Predictive Value: Test +ve With DZ
NPV D/C+D
OR AD/BC - Predictive Value: Tested –ve w/o DZ A&D
OR: Odds Ratio
RR (A/All)/(C/All) RR: Relative Risk
AR (A/All)-(C/All) AR: Attributed Risk
516. Monomer in blood
Dimer in secretion
Located on mucosal surface
Found in secretion
517. Only functions as surface marker for Mature B-
Cell
518. Immediate hypersensitivity/anaphylaxis
Parasite defense
Worms
Fc region binds to mast cells and basophils
Allergies
Does Not fix complement
519. Highest affinity
Memory respond at day 3 five times the concentration
Peaks in 5 years last for 10 years
Opsonizes
Activates complement
2nd to show up in primary response
Only one to show up for secondary respond
Most abundant Ig in newborn
Antigenic differences in heavy chain and site of di-
sulfide bond
4 subclasses G1 to G4
535. Increased Chylomicron
Deficiency of Lipoprotein lipase enzyme
Defect in liver only
536. Increased LDL
Two types IIa and IIb
Type IIa Receptor deficiency for LDL or missing
B-100
Type II-b (LDL and VLDL problems) enzyme
deficiency for LDL at adipose. Receptor problem
for VLDL. Most common in General Population
559. Hypopigmented macules on upper back
Presents in a V pattern
A.K.A. upside down christmas tree
Tx: Griseofulvin
560. Linear excoriations on belt line and finger webs
What is the tx?
Lindane
Permethrin
561. DiGeorges
What ion imbalance will they have?
Hypokalemia
What did not form?
3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch
What chromosome?
Deletion on chromosome 22
572. Gram -/+?
Pleomorphic gram (-) rods
What pattern?
“school of fish pattern”
What type is most common?
Type A
80%
573. Capsule or no capsule?
non-encapsulated
Invasive or non invasive?
non-invasive
574. Most common cause of what?
Sinusitis
Otitis
Bronchitis
575. What is the 2nd most common type?
TYPE B
20%
Encapsulated or non encapsulated?
Encapsulated
What does it have in its capsule?
Polyribosyl phosphate in capsule
Contains IgA protease
576. Invasive or non invasive?
Invasive
What does it cause most often?
#1 cause of epiglottitis
What are the signs of epiglottitis?
Stridor
Fever
Thumb sign on xray
577. 0-2 months?
#1. Group B strep (agalactiae)
#2. E. coli
#3. Listera
578. 2 Months- 10 years?
#1. strep pneumonia
#2. n. meningitides
(adolescent years only)
605. MC infection?
CMV
MCC of death?
PCP
What is p41 used for?
Just a marker
606. What does Gp120 do?
Attachment to CD4
What is Pol used for?
Integration
What is reverse transcriptase used for?
Transcription
What are p17 & p24 antigens used for?
Assembly
607. What is the normal CD4 count?
800-1200
What can the CD4 count be up to in children?
1500
When do you begin treating with 2 nucleotide
inhibitors and 1 protease inhibitor?
<500
(child at 750)
608. AIDS is defined as a CD4 count of what?
<200
With a CD4 count of <200 what do you tx for?
PCP
What do you treat for when CD count is <100?
Mycobacterium aviam intracellular
609. Vitamin E
#1
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Betakertine
610. Parathyroid
Along with what other cofactor?
Mg+
611. Hyperparathyroid
Increase Ca+
Decrease Phosphate
What will be the symptoms?
Goans
Moans
Bones
Stones
612. Pseudotumor Cerebri
Increase CSF production from Chorichoid Plexus
687. Leigh’s Disease
What is another name?
Subacute necrotizing encephalomyelopathy
What are the signs & symptoms?
Progressively decreasing IQ
Seizure
Ataxia
What is the deficiency?
Cytochrome oxidase deficiency
688. Leber’s Hereditary Optic Atrophy (LHON)
They all die
689. Listeria
What part is toxic?
Lipid A
Does it cross the placenta?
Yes
690. T-cells & Macrophages, therefore, have
granulomas
691. Raw cabbage
Spoiled milk
Migrant workers
692. Birth – 2 months
4 – 7 years old
Puberty
712. High temperature with NORMAL pulse rate!
(This should never be! Each degree ↑ in temp. → 10
beats/min ↑ in pulse rate)
713. FEVER
NONSPECIFIC ILLNESS
RECRUITS TH CELLS for LINKING with MHC II
COMPLEX
SECRETED BY MACROPHAGES
714. MOST POTENT OF THE Interleukins
RECRUITS EVERYBODY
MOST POWERFUL CHEMO-ATTRACTANT
MUST BE INACTIVATED
When must you inactivate it?
PRIOR TO TRANSPLANTATION
by cyclosporin
SECRETED BY TH1 CELLS
715. ENERGIZED MACROPHAGES
CAUSES B-CELL PROLIFERATION
LABELED BY THYMIDINE (USE POKEWEED
MITOGEN OR ENDOTOXIN)
SECRETED BY ACTIVATED T CELLS
716. B-CELL DIFFERENTIATION
RESPONSIBLE FOR CLASS SWITCHING
SECRETED BY TH2 CELLS
718. SUPPRESSES CELL-MEDIATED RESPONSE (tells
macrophages and fibroblasts to stay away if
bacterial)
INHIBITS MAC ACTIVATION
719. PROMOTES CELL-MEDIATED RESPONSE
(recruits macs & fibroblasts if NOT bacterial)
ACTIVATES NK CELLS TO SECRETE IF-γ
INHIBITS IL-4 INDUCED IgE SECRETION
CHANGES TH CELLS to TH1 CELLS
secretes IL-2 & IF-γ → inhib. TH2, therefore, ↑ host
defenses against delayed hypersensitivity
720. Where is it from?
LEUKOCYTES
↓VIRAL REPLICATION AND TUMOR GROWTH
↑ NK ACTVITY
secretes perforins and granzymes to kill infected cell
↑MHC CLASS I & II EXPRESSION
↓ PROTEIN SYNTHESIS
translation inhibited, therefore, defective protein
synthesis
721. Increase NK activity
Increase MHC class I & II
Decrease protein synthesis
Decrease viral replication and growth
722. Where is it from?
FIBROBLASTS
Increase NK activity
Increase MHC class I & II
Decrease protein synthesis
Decrease viral replication and growth
723. Where is it from?
T-CELLS & NK CELLS
↑ NK ACTIVITY
↑MHC CLASS I & II
↑ MACROPHAGE ACTIVITY
CO-STIMULATES B-CELL GROWTH &
DIFFERENTIATION
↓ IgE SECRETION
724. Where is it from?
MONOCYTES & MACROPHAGES
What is another name for TNF-alpha?
CACHECTIN
INDUCES IL-1
↑ ADHESION MOLECULES & MHC CLASS I ON
ENDOTHELIAL CELLS
PYROGEN
INDUCES IF-γ SECRETION
CYTOTOXIC/CYTOSTATIC EFFECT
725. Where is it from?
T-CELLS
What is another name for it?
LYMPHOTOXIN
CYTOTOXIC FACTOR
726. Where is it from?
SOLID TUMORS (CARCINOMA > SARCOMA)
MONOCYTES
What is another name for it?
TRANSFORMING GROWTH FACTORS
727. What does it INDUCE?
ANGIOGENESIS
KERATINOCYTE PROLIFERATION
BONE RESORPTION
TUMOR GROWTH
What is it mainly for?
MAINLY FOR TUMOR GROWTH
728. Where is it from?
PLATELETS
PLACENTA
KIDNEY
BONE
T & B CELLS
735. CNS
Heart
Skeletal muscle
Why does it affect these particular places?
Due to uneven cytokinesis during meiosis or
oogenesis
736. Who are affected?
All offspring
Who passes the disease?
MOM
Who has no transmission?
Dad
737. Who does it show in?
Not parents
Siblings/uncles may show disease
When is onset?
Early in life (childhood diagnosis)
Is it complete on incomplete penetrance?
COMPLETE
738. How are they acquired?
Almost ALL are inborn error of metabolism
When does it occur?
Only when both alleles at a locus are mutant
739. How is it transmitted?
Horizontal Tm
Are there malformations present?
Physical malformations are uncommon
What type of defect?
Enzyme defect
740. Who does it affect the most?
M=F
How does it manifest?
Heterozygote state
Who can transmit the disease?
Both parents
741. Where is the new mutation?
Often in germ cells of older fathers
When is onset?
Often delayed (adult diagnosis)
Example = Huntington’s
742. What is penetrance?
Reduced penetrance
How is it expressed?
Variable expressin
Different in each individual
743. How is it transmitted?
Vertical TM
Is there malformation present?
Physical malformation common
What type of defect?
Structural
745. What happens <24hrs?
Swelling
What happens at 24 hrs?
Neutrophils show up
What happens at day 3?
Neutrophils peak
746. What happens at day 4?
T cells and Macrophages show up
What happens at day 7?
Fibroblasts show up
What happens in 1 month?
Fibroblast peak
747. What happens at 3-6 months?
Fibroblasts are gone
829. Olfactory
What is its function?
Sensory for smell
What if lesioned?
Anosmia
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Cribriform plate
What does it innervate?
Nasal Cavity
830. Optic
What is its function?
Sensory for sight
What if lesioned?
Anopsia
Visual field defect
Loss of light reflex with CN III
Only nerve affected by MS
831. Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Optic Canal
What does it innervate?
Orbit
832. Occulomotor
What are the functions?
Motor
Moves the eyeball in ALL directions
Adduction Most important action (MR)
Constricts the pupil (Spincter Pupillae)
Accomodates (Cililary Muscle)
Raises eyelid (Levator Palpebrae)
833. What if lesioned?
Diplopia
Loss of parallel gaze
Dilated pupil
Loss of light reflex
Loss of near response
Ptosis
834. Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Superior Orbital Fissure
What does it innervate?
Orbit
835. Trochlear
What is its function?
Motor
Superior Oblique
Depresses and abducts the eyeballs
Intorts
836. What if lesioned?
Weakness looking down w/ adducted eye
Trouble going down stairs
Head tilts away from lesioned side
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Superior Orbital Fissure
840. Mixed
General sensation (touch, pain, temperature) of the
forehead, scalp, & cornea
What if lesioned?
Loss of general sensation of the forehead/scalp
Loss of blink reflex w/ VII
Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium?
Superior orbital Fissure
Ophthalmic division